365 Administration Expert Exam Dumps and MS-102 Braindumps

A regional consulting firm named Blue Ridge Tech plans to install Microsoft 365 Apps for Enterprise to endpoints from a local file server rather than downloading from the internet. Which tool is primarily used to carry out that installation locally?

• ❏ A. Microsoft Intune

• ❏ B. PowerShell

• ❏ C. Azure DevOps

• ❏ D. Office Deployment Tool (ODT)

Your operations team at MapleTech is creating a Log Analytics workspace in Microsoft Azure and needs to decide on a retention period for collected logs. What is the longest retention interval you can configure for logs in that workspace?

• ❏ A. 550 days

• ❏ B. 365 days

• ❏ C. 180 days

• ❏ D. 730 days

NovaWorks uses Microsoft 365 and a staff member named AdminUser requires temporary elevated access. AdminUser must be able to adjust Microsoft Teams policy settings and update Microsoft 365 user accounts. The elevated access must be granted only for 12 hours and must require approval before activation. Which solution should you implement?

• ❏ A. Azure Information Protection

• ❏ B. Azure AD Conditional Access

• ❏ C. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)

• ❏ D. Microsoft Entra Identity Governance

A regional retail chain wants to measure its cyber defense readiness by running exercises that emulate real attacker tactics and behaviors. Which Microsoft 365 Defender capability should the security team deploy to conduct those realistic tests?

• ❏ A. Proactive threat hunting

• ❏ B. Attack simulation training

• ❏ C. Vulnerability assessment and risk analysis

• ❏ D. Security performance dashboards

• ❏ E. Threat surface reduction measures

You oversee IT for a regional consultancy that uses Microsoft 365 and the internal DNS domain differs from the public DNS domain. How should the organization’s internal DNS servers treat Autodiscover lookup requests from users on the corporate LAN?

• ❏ A. Prevent Autodiscover lookups at the DNS layer

• ❏ B. Forward Autodiscover queries to public DNS resolvers

• ❏ C. Use a managed public DNS service such as Cloud DNS to resolve the names

• ❏ D. Create internal Autodiscover records that resolve to internal endpoints

At FinTrust Bank the compliance team documents information barriers as only supporting reciprocal blocks so that members of Group Alpha cannot initiate communication with members of Group Beta and members of Group Beta cannot initiate communication with members of Group Alpha. Is that statement correct?

• ❏ A. False

• ❏ B. True

You manage Microsoft 365 for a multinational consulting firm called Meridian Tech and you will run a small Azure Active Directory pilot for a handful of teams. You want to synchronize only a specific subset of employees to Azure AD for the pilot. Which synchronization filtering method should you choose?

• ❏ A. Attribute based filtering

• ❏ B. Domain based filtering

• ❏ C. Filtering by group membership

• ❏ D. Organizational unit filtering

The security team at BlueWave Solutions wants to evaluate defenses and identify areas for improvement. In the Microsoft Defender portal which component ranks remediation recommendations by their likely impact?

• ❏ A. Threat analytics

• ❏ B. Advanced Hunting

• ❏ C. Secure Score

• ❏ D. Incident dashboard

• ❏ E. Reports

Horizon Capital has recently moved its workforce to Microsoft 365 and you must design a data protection approach that detects confidential material using predefined patterns and that prevents identified confidential data from being sent in Microsoft Teams messages or shared from OneDrive. Which features should you implement to satisfy these requirements? (Choose 2)

• ❏ A. Communication compliance

• ❏ B. Sensitivity labels

• ❏ C. Trainable classifier

• ❏ D. Information barriers

• ❏ E. Data Loss Prevention policy

You are configuring Azure AD Connect using the Express configuration for a company named Meridian Retail and you want the on-premises Active Directory to stay synchronized with the cloud. What does the Express configuration synchronize with Azure Active Directory?

• ❏ A. Additional user attributes

• ❏ B. User accounts passwords and other attributes

• ❏ C. User accounts

• ❏ D. Passwords and credential hashes

You are the compliance administrator at BlueRiver Solutions and you removed a sensitivity label from the enterprise labeling policy that applies to all user accounts and services. How long should you wait for the change to replicate across services and users?

• ❏ A. 12 hours

• ❏ B. 48 hours

• ❏ C. 1 hour

• ❏ D. 24 hours

You are the systems administrator for a growing nonprofit called HarborTech Solutions and you have been asked to roll out Microsoft Purview Privileged Access Management to strengthen control over elevated accounts. What is the first action you should take to begin using PAM?

• ❏ A. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management

• ❏ B. Approve incoming privileged access requests

• ❏ C. Create an approver group

• ❏ D. Create an access policy in Purview

Riverton Institute is a large university made up of independent colleges and schools. The IT department plans to use administrative units so each college IT team can be delegated specific directory permissions limited to their college. The College of Engineering requires its IT staff to manage user accounts, perform password resets, and control group membership only for users who belong to that college. Which directory role should be assigned to the College of Engineering IT staff with its scope constrained to their administrative unit?

• ❏ A. Groups Administrator

• ❏ B. Authentication Administrator

• ❏ C. User Administrator

• ❏ D. Global Administrator

You are a tenant administrator at Northbridge Systems and you need to add a large batch of employee accounts at once. What initial step should you take in the Azure Active Directory admin center to start bulk user creation?

• ❏ A. Users > Active users

• ❏ B. Users > Deleted users

• ❏ C. Users > Bulk delete

• ❏ D. Users > Bulk create

Which statements about confidence thresholds for sensitive information types in Aegis Compliance are correct? (Choose 4)

• ❏ A. A medium confidence threshold is associated with a numeric value of 85

• ❏ B. A high confidence threshold will only return matches that are classified as high confidence

• ❏ C. A low confidence threshold will return matches at low medium and high confidence levels

• ❏ D. Using a high confidence threshold reduces false positives but may increase false negatives

A security team at a healthcare technology firm named NovaHealth has detected a widescale malware campaign affecting peer organizations and they need a Microsoft 365 Defender capability that provides detailed threat actor profiles their tactics and recommended mitigation steps. Which capability should they use?

• ❏ A. Advanced hunting

• ❏ B. Incidents and alerts

• ❏ C. Threat explorer

• ❏ D. Secure Score

• ❏ E. Threat analytics

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

A regional consultancy is preparing to synchronize its on-premises Active Directory with Microsoft 365 and the identity team plans to use IdFix to find and fix synchronization issues. What combination of steps should the team perform to use IdFix effectively and ensure a reliable synchronization process?

• ❏ A. Use IdFix and apply the “Accept all suggested updates” option together with manually reviewing each error and exporting the findings to a CSV file for offline bulk edits

• ❏ B. Run IdFix from a workstation that has read and write access to the on-premises directory then manually review each detected issue and export results to CSV for offline editing and reimport

• ❏ C. Run IdFix on a machine with read and write access and use the “Accept all suggested updates” button to apply fixes immediately

• ❏ D. Execute IdFix with read and write permissions use the “Accept all suggested updates” option manually verify each correction and export the list for CSV based bulk updates

When onboarding a custom domain for ContosoCloud what DNS record do administrators most commonly add to validate ownership of the domain?

• ❏ A. MX record

• ❏ B. TXT or CNAME record

• ❏ C. Cloud DNS

• ❏ D. A record

A regional retailer runs a Microsoft 365 tenant and has an employee named Dana. Dana uses four endpoints in her job. The first endpoint is a desktop with Windows 11 and the second endpoint runs Windows 10. The third endpoint is an Android phone and the fourth endpoint is an iPad. The tenant creates a sensitivity label named ConfidentialHeader that inserts a custom header and applies it to a document named InvoiceA. When Dana opens InvoiceA which endpoints will show the custom header?

• ❏ A. Windows 11, Windows 10, Android and iPad

• ❏ B. Windows 11 host only

• ❏ C. Windows 11 and Windows 10 machines

• ❏ D. Windows 11 Windows 10 and Android device

A digital services company in Sweden manages about 850 endpoints that run Windows 11. During the initial configuration the telemetry was sent to data centers in the United States and the company now needs to keep logs in Europe to meet GDPR requirements. The organization plans to enroll all endpoints into Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. What step should the IT team take to satisfy the data residency requirement?

• ❏ A. Delete the existing United States workspace

• ❏ B. Use Google Cloud Storage location controls to redirect telemetry to Europe

• ❏ C. Offboard endpoints from the current workspace and then enroll them into a European workspace

• ❏ D. Create a new Microsoft Defender for Endpoint workspace in Europe

Which of these tasks cannot be completed directly in the Contoso Identity admin portal when managing external users?

• ❏ A. Send an invitation to add an external guest account

• ❏ B. Automatically provision guest accounts from a third party identity provider

• ❏ C. Enable multifactor authentication for external guest accounts

• ❏ D. Promote a guest account to a regular member account

A small consulting firm called Harborpoint has about 12 to 15 employees and plans to use Microsoft Intune, and they need to register their Windows workstations with Entra ID so management policies can be applied; what is the minimum Windows release they must run to ensure Intune can push all device policies?

• ❏ A. Windows 8.1

• ❏ B. Windows 11

• ❏ C. Windows 10

• ❏ D. Windows 8

A corporate counsel team at Meridian Advisory has deployed sensitivity labels in Microsoft 365. The firm needs to make a “Top Tier Confidential” label visible only to members of the Legal team while keeping it hidden from other departments. What should the administrator do?

• ❏ A. Edit the existing sensitivity label and add the Legal team to its scope

• ❏ B. Create a new sensitivity label called “Top Tier Confidential” and publish it to the entire organization

• ❏ C. Create a separate label publishing policy that contains the “Top Tier Confidential” label and target it exclusively to the Legal team

• ❏ D. Modify the current label publishing policy to distribute the “Top Tier Confidential” label to every user in the tenant

BrightLearn uses Microsoft 365 and wants to verify that all incoming email senders are authenticated before messages reach employees. Which Microsoft 365 Defender policy should they configure?

• ❏ A. Safe Attachments

• ❏ B. Anti-spam

• ❏ C. Anti-phishing

• ❏ D. Safe Links

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. Contoso Directory Connect __ is a capability that lets you synchronize on premises Active Directory objects to Contoso Entra ID and it provides attribute mapping scoping filters and on demand provisioning for validating configuration changes?

• ❏ A. staging mode

• ❏ B. password hash synchronization

• ❏ C. cloud sync

• ❏ D. pass through authentication

Your IT team at Northbridge Systems is preparing to deploy Microsoft Defender for Endpoint and must decide how long to keep telemetry and event logs. What is the maximum retention period that should be configured for Microsoft Defender for Endpoint?

• ❏ A. 52 weeks

• ❏ B. 4 weeks

• ❏ C. 26 weeks

• ❏ D. 13 weeks

You are a systems engineer at Nova Systems and you must set an expiration for encrypted messages sent to external recipients. Which PowerShell cmdlet should you run to create a custom OME configuration that specifies the message expiry?

• ❏ A. Set-OMEConfiguration

• ❏ B. Cloud KMS

• ❏ C. New-OMEConfiguration

• ❏ D. Set-TransportRule

A staff member at a regional agency had trouble activating their Microsoft 365 apps and asked the IT administrator to open a support request with Microsoft. From which administrator console should the administrator file the support request?

• ❏ A. Microsoft Entra ID

• ❏ B. Azure portal

• ❏ C. Microsoft 365 Admin Center

• ❏ D. Endpoint Manager admin center

A regional bank is preparing to connect its on-premises Active Directory to Azure AD. Which synchronization tool does the platform vendor recommend for keeping user identities synchronized?

• ❏ A. Azure DevOps

• ❏ B. Google Cloud Directory Sync

• ❏ C. Azure AD Connect

• ❏ D. Azure Logic Apps

Your company has adopted a Zero Trust security approach and you are responsible for configuring access policies that consider the user device location and session risk for every access attempt, which Azure capability should you use to make those dynamic access decisions?

• ❏ A. Azure Blob Storage

• ❏ B. Azure Active Directory conditional access

• ❏ C. Azure Kubernetes Service

• ❏ D. Azure Virtual Machines

You are the data protection lead at Apex Insurance and you must prevent unauthorized sharing and movement of confidential information across productivity apps and cloud services. Which Microsoft Purview feature should you implement?

• ❏ A. Microsoft Purview Content Explorer

• ❏ B. Microsoft Purview Activity Explorer

• ❏ C. Microsoft Purview Data Classification

• ❏ D. Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention (DLP)

Lena is an identity administrator at Fabrikam Solutions and the company plans to synchronize their on site Active Directory with Microsoft Entra ID by using Microsoft Entra Connect cloud sync. Lena has applied the initial configuration and she wants to trial some changes on a single account before rolling them out to the entire tenant. Which feature should Lena use to validate her configuration changes on one user without impacting the full directory?

• ❏ A. Attribute mapping

• ❏ B. Accidental deletion safeguards

• ❏ C. Scoping filters

• ❏ D. On demand provisioning

You are the IT lead for a global company named Aurora Dynamics and the organization has chosen Microsoft 365 Backup to protect business operations. You must configure backups for the company OneDrive SharePoint and Exchange environments. What is the correct order of steps to configure Microsoft 365 Backup?

• ❏ A. Create backup policies first then enable pay as you go billing and finally turn on Microsoft 365 Backup

• ❏ B. Enable pay as you go billing in Azure then turn on Microsoft 365 Backup and then create backup policies for OneDrive SharePoint and Exchange

• ❏ C. Turn on Microsoft 365 Backup then enable pay as you go billing and then create backup policies

• ❏ D. Activate Microsoft 365 Backup then define backup policies and lastly enable pay as you go billing

You are the security administrator for a regional finance company and you need to update an existing “Safe Links” policy in the Contoso Security Console. Which area of the console should you open to modify that policy?

• ❏ A. Policies and rules

• ❏ B. Security and compliance

• ❏ C. Threat policies

• ❏ D. User management

NovelTech Solutions has just provisioned a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant and the security defaults are active. A newly added employee is signing into the tenant for the first time. Under Microsoft’s default configuration which multi factor authentication method will be presented to the user and how many days do they have to complete the MFA registration?

• ❏ A. Call to the registered phone, 75 days

• ❏ B. Temporary Access Pass issued by an admin, 36 days

• ❏ C. Notification sent to the Microsoft Authenticator app, 11 days

• ❏ D. Text message to a mobile number, 9 days

When your security team creates information barrier rules for a company such as Meridian Analytics how should those rules be left until the team is prepared to enforce them?

• ❏ A. Pending review

• ❏ B. Active

• ❏ C. Draft

• ❏ D. Inactive

When delegating administration to an external IT provider for the Microsoft 365 tenant owned by NorthWave Inc which configuration allows the provider to assign administrative roles to the organization users while preventing the provider from managing the tenant multi factor authentication settings to meet strict compliance requirements?

• ❏ A. Create a custom role in Microsoft Entra ID that grants user management and role assignment but explicitly excludes permissions for security settings and MFA policies

• ❏ B. Authorize the provider as a “Delegated Admin” in the Microsoft 365 admin center and assign the “Global Administrator” role

• ❏ C. Authorize the provider as a “Delegated Admin” in the Microsoft 365 admin center and assign the “Admin Agent” role

• ❏ D. Grant the provider the read oriented “Helpdesk Agent” role and require escalation through the Microsoft Entra admin center for role assignment tasks

You work as an IT security engineer at GreenField Technologies and you are using PowerShell to add a new Safe Links policy for your organization. Which PowerShell cmdlet should you run to create the Safe Links policy?

• ❏ A. Set-SafeLinksPolicy

• ❏ B. New-SafeLinksRule

• ❏ C. New-SafeLinksPolicy

• ❏ D. Set-SafeLinksRule

A system administrator must grant a staff member named Alex the ability to view and investigate service health advisories for SummitCloud Workplace services while following the principle of least privilege. Which role should be assigned to Alex?

• ❏ A. Message Board Reader

• ❏ B. Compliance Manager

• ❏ C. Support Services Administrator

• ❏ D. Analytics Reports Reader

Which two terms correctly fill the blanks in this sentence A retention blank can be applied to multiple locations including Exchange mailboxes SharePoint sites OneDrive accounts and Microsoft 365 Groups while a retention blank can be applied to individual items such as emails or documents?

• ❏ A. label and policy

• ❏ B. policy and label

• ❏ C. rule and setting

• ❏ D. policy and tag

You need to determine how many times Exchange Online was unavailable during the past 45 days for Cascadia Financial. You intend to check the Reports area of the Microsoft 365 admin portal to retrieve those outage counts. Is that the right approach?

• ❏ A. Yes

• ❏ B. No

Complete the sentence with the correct term. Contoso Identity Password Protection uses two banned password lists. One is the global banned password list which is enforced automatically for every account in a Contoso directory and the other is the __ banned password list that lets administrators add organization specific entries?

• ❏ A. directory

• ❏ B. custom

• ❏ C. tenant

• ❏ D. organization

You are the systems administrator for Aurora Health Systems and you suspect that an employee mailbox has been compromised and is sending outbound spam messages. Which pool does Exchange Online Protection route such suspicious outgoing mail through to preserve the service reputation?

• ❏ A. No risk delivery pool

• ❏ B. Moderate risk delivery pool

• ❏ C. Elevated risk delivery pool

• ❏ D. Low risk delivery pool

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

A regional firm called Northstar Financial needs to preserve documents and email messages that contain the personal data of European Union residents for nine years. Which configuration should be applied to fulfill this retention requirement?

• ❏ A. A data loss prevention policy in the Exchange admin center

• ❏ B. A retention policy configured in the Exchange admin center

• ❏ C. A retention rule created in the Microsoft Purview compliance portal

• ❏ D. A data loss prevention policy in the Microsoft Purview compliance portal

In the Contoso 365 administration portal which page lets administrators buy new subscriptions and handle license assignments?

• ❏ A. Billing

• ❏ B. Purchase services

• ❏ C. Tenant settings

• ❏ D. Products and subscriptions

Maya is the office coordinator at a small design studio and she must create and maintain shared contacts that every employee can access using Microsoft 365. The directory includes clients vendors and freelance partners. What actions can Maya perform in the Microsoft 365 admin center to manage these shared contacts?

• ❏ A. Import multiple contacts from a CSV file

• ❏ B. Modify existing contact details

• ❏ C. Perform all of these tasks in the Microsoft 365 admin center

• ❏ D. Create individual mail contacts with email addresses and phone numbers

When evaluating findings from Cloud App Discovery what steps should administrators take to address identified issues? (Choose 3)

• ❏ A. Produce audit and usage reports to support compliance and operational decisions

• ❏ B. Investigate applications that receive high risk or suspicious scores

• ❏ C. Immediately block every unsanctioned application without assessment

• ❏ D. Implement conditional access rules to control app access based on risk signals

A regional advisory firm has rolled out Microsoft 365 and needs to keep every email in the CEO mailbox for 8 years while emails in other executive mailboxes must be kept for 6 years. Which approach meets these retention requirements while keeping administrative work to a minimum?

• ❏ A. Place the CEO mailbox on litigation hold and rely on the standard retention configuration for the other executive mailboxes

• ❏ B. Create one 6 year organization retention policy for all executive mailboxes and apply an 8 year retention label specifically to the CEO mailbox

• ❏ C. Create two distinct retention policies with one set to 8 years targeting the CEO mailbox and another set to 6 years targeting the other executive mailboxes

• ❏ D. Apply a single 8 year retention policy to all executive mailboxes and then create 6 year retention labels for the remaining executives

Which implementation phase concentrates on bringing in user accounts enabling directory synchronization and preparing guest access procedures?

• ❏ A. Set Identity and Access Management Policies

• ❏ B. Configure and Maintain Applications

• ❏ C. Audit Elevated Privileges Conduct an Access Review and Handle User Lifecycle

• ❏ D. Import Accounts Enable Directory Synchronization and Manage Devices

Contoso Service Health provides tailored alerts and support when platform components affect your workloads and it includes three parts which are Global Status Service Health and Resource Health. Where in the Contoso portal do Service Health notifications appear?

• ❏ A. Settings > Service health

• ❏ B. Resources > Service health

• ❏ C. Monitor > Service health

• ❏ D. Services > Service health

• ❏ E. Management > Service health

Office Deployment Tool (ODT) is correct.

The Office Deployment Tool is a Microsoft command line utility that administrators use to download Microsoft 365 Apps source files and to create a configuration file that controls what is installed and how. You can use the ODT to download installation files one time to a local network share and then run the setup on endpoints so installations occur from the local file server rather than from the internet.

The ODT supports offline deployments by letting you specify product selection, update channel, languages, and install behavior in the configuration XML. Administrators run the tool to create the source files and then invoke setup.exe with the configuration file on client machines to perform the local installation.

Microsoft Intune is not the primary tool for creating an offline Office package. Intune can deploy apps and manage devices from the cloud and it can deploy packages that were prepared with other tools, but it does not itself produce the local installation source and configuration that ODT provides.

PowerShell can automate many deployment tasks and it can call the ODT or run the Office setup, but PowerShell is a scripting environment rather than the package creation and configuration tool that you use to build the offline install files.

Azure DevOps is a CI CD and build service that can orchestrate pipelines and store artifacts, but it is not the standard Microsoft tool for preparing Microsoft 365 Apps installation packages for local network deployment.

When the question asks about installing Microsoft 365 Apps from a local share think of the tool that creates the install files and configuration file. Practice creating a configuration.xml and downloading sources with the Office Deployment Tool on a test share before you deploy broadly.

The correct answer is 730 days.

Azure Log Analytics workspaces support setting a retention period for collected log data and the maximum configurable retention is two years which is expressed as 730 days. You set this value in the workspace retention settings and data older than the configured retention is removed unless you use archive or export options.

550 days is incorrect because it is below the supported maximum and does not reflect the two year limit.

365 days is incorrect because one year is a common retention choice but it is not the maximum allowed value.

180 days is incorrect because it is a shorter retention period and well under the platform maximum.

When a question asks for the longest allowed retention look for the maximum platform limit and do not confuse common defaults with the maximum. Remember that the maximum for Log Analytics retention is 730 days.

Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) is the correct solution for this scenario.

PIM enables just in time elevation of administrative roles and it supports eligible assignments that require activation for a limited duration. You can configure approval workflows and set the maximum activation time so AdminUser can request elevation that only lasts the required 12 hours and that requires an approver before activation.

Azure Information Protection is incorrect because it is focused on labeling and protecting documents and email and it does not provide mechanisms to grant temporary administrative privileges.

Azure AD Conditional Access is incorrect because it is used to enforce access controls and risk based policies and not to provide time bound role elevation with approval workflows.

Microsoft Entra Identity Governance is incorrect because it describes a broad set of governance capabilities such as entitlement management and access reviews and it does not itself implement the just in time privileged activation and approval experience that PIM provides.

When a question mentions temporary access and approval before activation look for Privileged Identity Management as the likely answer.

Attack simulation training is the correct option.

This capability in Microsoft 365 Defender lets security teams build and run realistic simulations of attacker tactics and behaviors so they can test user susceptibility, measure detection and response, and improve defensive controls through repeatable exercises. The feature includes templates for phishing and credential harvest simulations and reporting that shows how users and systems responded during the scenarios.

Proactive threat hunting is incorrect because hunting is an active investigative process to find threats in your environment rather than a controlled service for emulating attacker behavior and training defenses.

Vulnerability assessment and risk analysis is incorrect because those capabilities focus on finding and prioritizing software and configuration issues rather than executing attacker-style simulations against users and controls.

Security performance dashboards is incorrect because dashboards provide metrics and visibility about security posture and incidents rather than running realistic attack simulations for testing readiness.

Threat surface reduction measures is incorrect because those controls aim to reduce exposure and block malicious behavior proactively rather than to emulate attacker tactics in order to run training exercises.

When a question asks about running realistic attacker exercises look for the option that explicitly mentions “simulation” or “training” and not the options that focus on monitoring, metrics, or vulnerability scanning. Picking the feature that runs controlled attacks will usually be the right choice.

Forward Autodiscover queries to public DNS resolvers is the correct option.

When your internal DNS namespace differs from the public namespace Outlook and other clients will try to locate Autodiscover using the public name such as autodiscover.example.com. Forwarding those queries to public DNS resolvers lets clients reach the Microsoft 365 or other public Autodiscover records without creating conflicting internal entries or blocking resolution.

Prevent Autodiscover lookups at the DNS layer is wrong because blocking or preventing those lookups will break automatic configuration and cause client connectivity failures. Autodiscover must be allowed to resolve so clients can obtain settings.

Use a managed public DNS service such as Cloud DNS to resolve the names is not the correct action for internal DNS behavior. Using a public managed DNS service affects authoritative public records but does not change how internal resolvers should handle queries from clients on the corporate LAN. Forwarding or conditional forwarders on the internal DNS server is the usual solution.

Create internal Autodiscover records that resolve to internal endpoints is only appropriate if you are hosting internal Exchange or Autodiscover services. For a Microsoft 365 deployment creating internal records that point to non existent internal endpoints will misdirect clients and break autodiscover for cloud mailboxes.

When the internal and public domains differ remember that clients will query the public Autodiscover name so use forwarding or conditional forwarders on your internal DNS servers rather than blocking or creating conflicting internal records.

True is correct because information barriers are documented as reciprocal blocks that prevent members of Group Alpha from initiating communication with members of Group Beta and also prevent members of Group Beta from initiating communication with members of Group Alpha.

This behavior is intentional so that the barrier enforces mutual separation and reduces the risk of accidental or intentional information flow between the two groups. In other words the control is implemented as a two way restriction rather than as a one way allowance.

False is incorrect because it implies that only one directional blocking or asymmetric communication rules are supported. That interpretation does not match the documented behavior where the barrier enforces reciprocal restrictions between the groups.

Pay attention to the word only in the question. If a product enforces mutual separation the exam will often emphasize that you cannot create a one way exception.

The correct option is Filtering by group membership.

Filtering by group membership lets Azure AD Connect synchronize only the members of one or more on premises security groups so you can build a pilot by adding the specific users to those groups. This approach is easy to manage because you can add or remove pilot users by updating group membership without changing the directory structure or editing many user attributes. It also reduces risk because only group members are targeted for synchronization.

Attribute based filtering is not the best choice here because it requires setting and maintaining specific attribute values on each user and it is more error prone for short term pilots. You can use attributes to filter but it requires more planning and changes to user accounts.

Domain based filtering is incorrect because it limits synchronization by verified domain or UPN suffix and it cannot target an arbitrary subset of users within the same domain. That makes it a poor fit when the pilot involves a mixed set of users across domains or within a single domain.

Organizational unit filtering is not ideal when you need a flexible pilot because it ties synchronization to the AD OU structure. Moving users between OUs or reorganizing AD can unintentionally change who is included in the pilot so groups are usually preferred for temporary or cross OU pilots.

When a question asks about syncing a small pilot think about group-based filtering first because it is simple to control and does not require changes to user attributes or AD structure.

Secure Score is the correct component in the Microsoft Defender portal that ranks remediation recommendations by their likely impact.

The Secure Score measurement assesses an environment and assigns weighted values to improvement actions so that it can prioritize recommendations by the potential impact on overall security posture. The portal lists improvement actions and shows estimated impact so security teams can focus on changes that provide the greatest benefit.

Threat analytics provides threat intelligence and contextual information about active attacks and attacker behavior, but it does not rank remediation recommendations by likely impact.

Advanced Hunting is an interactive query capability for searching telemetry and hunting for threats with custom queries, but it is not a posture scoring or remediation prioritization feature.

Incident dashboard groups alerts into incidents and supports investigation and response workflows, but it does not provide a prioritized list of remediation recommendations by impact.

Reports deliver visibility into trends, metrics, and compliance status and they are useful for auditing and monitoring, but they do not rank remediation recommendations by likely impact like the secure score does.

When a question asks which component ranks or prioritizes remediation actions look for a posture management feature such as Secure Score rather than analytics, hunting, dashboards, or generic reports.

The correct answers are Trainable classifier and Data Loss Prevention policy.

Trainable classifier lets you create custom classifiers by training on example documents so the platform can detect confidential material that does not match only predefined sensitive info patterns. It improves detection accuracy for organization specific content by learning from positive and negative examples and can be referenced by policies across Microsoft 365.

Data Loss Prevention policy provides the enforcement actions to block, restrict, or warn when sensitive content is detected. DLP can inspect Teams messages and files in OneDrive and SharePoint and it can use sensitive info types and trainable classifiers as conditions so you can prevent identified confidential data from being sent or shared.

Communication compliance is focused on monitoring communications for policy violations such as harassment or regulatory issues and it supports review and remediation workflows rather than blocking messages or file sharing based on sensitive data patterns, so it does not meet the requirement to prevent sharing.

Sensitivity labels are intended to classify and protect content with encryption and access controls and they help protect data at rest, but they do not by themselves detect arbitrary confidential patterns and enforce blocking in Teams or OneDrive without DLP policies acting on those labels.

Information barriers are used to prevent communication or collaboration between defined groups for regulatory separation and they do not provide content pattern detection or the ability to block sharing based on sensitive data, so they are not appropriate for this scenario.

When you need to both detect custom confidential content and stop sharing across services use trainable classifiers for detection and DLP policies to enforce blocking or restrictions.

The correct answer is: User accounts passwords and other attributes.

Azure AD Connect Express config synchronizes on premises user objects along with their attributes and it enables password hash synchronization by default so users can sign in to Azure AD with the same credentials. The express installation applies common default sync rules and settings to keep the on premises Active Directory synchronized with Azure AD without additional configuration.

Additional user attributes is incorrect because the express configuration does more than just sync extra attributes. It synchronizes the user accounts themselves and their password hashes as well as common attributes.

User accounts is incorrect because that option omits the fact that passwords and other user attributes are also synchronized by the express setup. Syncing only account objects would not reflect the full behavior of the express configuration.

Passwords and credential hashes is incorrect because the express configuration does not only synchronize credential data. It synchronizes user accounts and their attributes in addition to performing password hash synchronization, and the option wording is incomplete and misleading.

When you see a question about Azure AD Connect Express remember that it applies standard defaults and enables password hash synchronization along with syncing users and common attributes.

The correct answer is 24 hours.

Changes to sensitivity labels and the enterprise labeling policy are applied centrally and then propagated to Microsoft 365 services and user clients through background synchronization and caching. Because of that propagation and caching process it can take up to a full day for a removed label to no longer appear for all users and services which is why 24 hours is the correct timeframe.

12 hours is incorrect because label and policy replication can exceed half a day and Microsoft documentation notes that up to 24 hours may be required for changes to reach all services and clients.

48 hours is incorrect because it overestimates the typical propagation window and is not the documented expected timeframe for removal to replicate across services.

1 hour is incorrect because that understates the usual replication and caching delays and is shorter than the documented replication window.

When questions ask about policy or label propagation think about background sync and caching and remember that Microsoft often documents a up to 24 hours window for changes to fully replicate.

The correct option is Create an approver group.

Creating an approver group is the first practical step when rolling out Microsoft Purview Privileged Access Management because the approval workflow needs defined approvers before policies can route requests. The approver group defines who can accept or deny elevated access requests and it is referenced by later configuration steps.

After you create the approver group you can create access policies that reference that group so requests are routed to the right people. The approver group must exist first so that policies and workflows can assign approval responsibilities correctly.

Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management is incorrect because Azure AD Privileged Identity Management is a separate service for managing Azure and Microsoft 365 role assignments. It is not the initial setup step for Purview Privileged Access Management and enabling it does not by itself configure Purview approval workflows.

Approve incoming privileged access requests is incorrect because approving requests is an operational activity that happens after the system and approvers are configured. You cannot meaningfully approve requests before you have created the approver group and policies that generate and route those requests.

Create an access policy in Purview is incorrect as the very first action because access policies typically reference approvers or approver groups. You generally create the approver group first and then create policies that assign that group as the approver for specific privileged actions.

On exam questions look for choices that describe a setup or configuration step that must exist before workflows run. Creating groups or roles that policies reference is often the correct first action, so focus on whether the option prepares the system rather than performs an operational task.

The correct answer is User Administrator.

The User Administrator role allows administrators to manage user accounts, perform password resets, and control group membership. When this role is assigned with its scope constrained to an administrative unit the permissions apply only to the users and groups in that unit which meets the College of Engineering requirement for delegated, limited management.

Groups Administrator is incorrect because that role is focused on managing groups and does not grant full user account management or password reset capabilities.

Authentication Administrator is incorrect because that role is intended to manage authentication methods and some password related tasks, but it does not provide complete user account management or broad control over group membership.

Global Administrator is incorrect because it grants tenant wide unrestricted privileges and is far broader than the scoped delegation needed for a single college.

When a question asks for delegated, limited admin rights look for roles that cover the required actions and confirm they can be scoped to an administrative unit. Choose the smallest role that meets the requirements.

The correct option is Users > Bulk create.

The Users > Bulk create action in the Azure Active Directory admin center opens a bulk import workflow that lets you add many accounts at once by uploading a CSV file. You can download the Microsoft CSV template from the blade, fill in the required fields, and then upload it to create the accounts in a single operation.

Users > Active users is the area for viewing and managing existing accounts and it supports adding a single new user but it does not provide the bulk CSV import workflow needed to create a large batch at once.

Users > Deleted users shows recently deleted accounts and lets you restore them when needed and it is not used for creating new users.

Users > Bulk delete is the opposite bulk operation and it is used to remove multiple user accounts rather than create them.

When you need to add many users use the Bulk create workflow and start by downloading the CSV template then validate your file before uploading.

The correct answers are A medium confidence threshold is associated with a numeric value of 85, A high confidence threshold will only return matches that are classified as high confidence, A low confidence threshold will return matches at low medium and high confidence levels, and Using a high confidence threshold reduces false positives but may increase false negatives.

A medium confidence threshold is associated with a numeric value of 85 is correct because the system maps human readable confidence levels to numeric score cutoffs and the medium level is defined at the 85 numeric cutoff in this configuration. This numeric mapping ensures that detections must meet or exceed that score to be considered medium confidence.

A high confidence threshold will only return matches that are classified as high confidence is correct because a high threshold requires the classifier score to reach the high level cutoff. Only findings that meet the high confidence criteria are returned when that threshold is applied which reduces lower confidence matches.

A low confidence threshold will return matches at low medium and high confidence levels is correct because a low cutoff is inclusive of anything above the low threshold. That means the detector will surface matches that fall into low and also those that score higher in medium and high categories.

Using a high confidence threshold reduces false positives but may increase false negatives is correct because raising the cutoff filters out borderline and lower scoring matches which cuts false alarms. The trade off is that some true instances that score below the stricter cutoff will be missed which raises false negatives.

When you see questions about thresholds focus on the inclusive or exclusive nature of each level and the trade off between false positives and false negatives.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is Threat analytics.

Threat analytics provides curated, research driven reports on active campaigns and threat actors and those reports include attacker tactics, techniques, and procedures as well as indicators of compromise and recommended mitigation steps, which is exactly what the security team is asking for.

These reports present contextual threat actor profiles, prevalence and timelines, and practical defensive guidance so teams can prioritize response and apply the recommended mitigations without having to assemble the intelligence from raw telemetry alone.

Advanced hunting is a query based capability for exploring raw telemetry across endpoints, identities, and email and it is intended for custom hunting rather than delivering packaged threat actor profiles and mitigation reports.

Incidents and alerts aggregates and correlates alerts into incidents and supports investigation and case management and it does not supply the research level campaign reports or actor profiles requested in the question.

Threat explorer provides real time investigation and threat hunting tools to inspect detections and email threats and it does not produce the high level threat actor profiles and recommended mitigation steps found in Threat analytics.

Secure Score measures security posture and suggests configuration improvements to reduce risk and it is not an intelligence feed that describes threat actors or campaign specific mitigations.

When a question asks for detailed actor profiles and recommended mitigations look for words like analytics or intelligence in the answer choices and rule out options that describe query tools or posture scoring.

The correct option is Run IdFix from a workstation that has read and write access to the on-premises directory then manually review each detected issue and export results to CSV for offline editing and reimport.

Run IdFix from a workstation that has read and write access to the on-premises directory then manually review each detected issue and export results to CSV for offline editing and reimport is correct because IdFix needs to run where it can both read and write to Active Directory so suggested changes can be validated and applied. Manual review prevents unintended attribute changes and exporting to CSV lets you perform controlled bulk edits offline and then reimport the cleaned data before synchronization.

Use IdFix and apply the “Accept all suggested updates” option together with manually reviewing each error and exporting the findings to a CSV file for offline bulk edits is incorrect because the “Accept all suggested updates” action applies changes immediately and that conflicts with the idea of reviewing and editing results offline. Applying all suggestions without a controlled review can introduce unwanted changes into the directory.

Run IdFix on a machine with read and write access and use the “Accept all suggested updates” button to apply fixes immediately is incorrect because applying all fixes immediately is risky and removes the opportunity for a careful review and staged bulk updates. Best practice is to review and export findings so you can manage bulk edits safely.

Execute IdFix with read and write permissions use the “Accept all suggested updates” option manually verify each correction and export the list for CSV based bulk updates is incorrect because the steps are contradictory. If you accept all suggested updates you have already applied changes and you cannot then use the exported CSV as the primary means to stage bulk updates. The safer sequence is to export, edit, verify, and then apply.

Run IdFix from a workstation with read and write access and prefer manual review with CSV export for bulk fixes before applying changes.

The correct answer is TXT or CNAME record.

Domain ownership verification most commonly uses a TXT record because providers issue a verification token that you paste into a TXT record for the domain. Some providers accept or require a CNAME record as an alternative method that points a verification subdomain to a vendor controlled hostname so the provider can confirm control of the domain.

The option MX record is incorrect because MX record entries direct mail delivery to mail servers and they are not generally used for ownership verification.

The option Cloud DNS is incorrect because Cloud DNS is a managed DNS service and not a specific DNS record to add for verification. The question asks which record to add and not which service will host the record.

The option A record is incorrect because A record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address and it does not carry verification tokens or point to vendor verification hostnames in the way that TXT or CNAME records do.

When you see a question about proving domain ownership think of adding a TXT record first and remember that a CNAME is a common alternative for some providers.

Windows 11 and Windows 10 machines is the correct option.

Windows 11 and Windows 10 machines will show the custom header because sensitivity labels that insert headers modify the document content and Office desktop apps on Windows apply and render those content markings. The header is embedded into the document by the labeling action and the full-featured Office clients on Windows display it when the file is opened.

Windows 11 and Windows 10 machines are both supported because the desktop Office apps on those operating systems implement the content marking feature that inserts headers and footers when a label is applied.

Windows 11, Windows 10, Android and iPad is incorrect because mobile clients such as Android and iPad do not consistently support inserting or rendering custom headers applied by sensitivity labels.

Windows 11 host only is incorrect because Windows 10 desktop clients also support the content marking capability and will display the header.

Windows 11 Windows 10 and Android device is incorrect because the Android device typically will not render the custom header added by the sensitivity label.

When a question mentions headers or footers added by sensitivity labels think about which clients can modify and render document content. Desktop Office on Windows is more likely to support content markings than mobile apps.

The correct answer is Create a new Microsoft Defender for Endpoint workspace in Europe.

Data residency for Microsoft Defender for Endpoint is determined by the workspace location and not by client side settings. Creating a workspace that is provisioned in Europe ensures that new telemetry and logs are stored in European datacenters and meets the GDPR requirement for regional storage.

Delete the existing United States workspace is incorrect because deleting the workspace does not move telemetry to Europe and could cause loss of historical data. Deletion alone does not reconfigure endpoints to send data to a European location.

Use Google Cloud Storage location controls to redirect telemetry to Europe is incorrect because Google Cloud Storage is not part of Microsoft Defender for Endpoint telemetry routing. Defender for Endpoint telemetry is handled by Microsoft services and cannot be redirected using Google Cloud controls.

Offboard endpoints from the current workspace and then enroll them into a European workspace is incorrect as stated in the options for this question. The essential step to satisfy data residency is to have a workspace that is provisioned in Europe. Offboarding and re-enrolling devices is an operational task that follows creating the European workspace but the question asks which step ensures data residency and that step is creating the European workspace.

When a question asks about data residency for Microsoft Defender for Endpoint think about where telemetry is stored and remember that the workspace location controls residency. Create the correctly located workspace first and then plan your onboarding or migration steps.

The correct option is Automatically provision guest accounts from a third party identity provider.

This task is not something the Contoso Identity admin portal performs directly because automatic provisioning from an external identity provider normally requires a provisioning connector or SCIM integration and often must be configured in the external IdP or a provisioning service rather than through the portal’s manual user management UI. The portal supports managing invited and existing guest accounts but it does not replace the external provisioning workflow that automatically creates guest identities from a third party system.

Send an invitation to add an external guest account is incorrect because inviting guests is a standard, built in capability of the admin portal and administrators can send invitations to external users directly from the user management interface.

Enable multifactor authentication for external guest accounts is incorrect because MFA requirements for guest users can be enforced from the portal through authentication settings and conditional access policies that apply to external accounts.

Promote a guest account to a regular member account is incorrect because the admin portal allows changing a user’s account type or converting a guest to a member through the user properties and account management features.

When a question asks what cannot be done directly in the admin portal focus on tasks that require external systems or connectors such as automated provisioning and remember that invitations, MFA enforcement, and changing user types are normally handled inside the portal.

The correct option is Windows 10.

Windows 10 is the minimum Windows client release that supports Azure AD join and full Mobile Device Management enrollment with Microsoft Intune so that device configuration, compliance settings, and Conditional Access policies can be applied to workstations.

Windows 11 is supported by Intune but it is not the minimum required release because it is a newer version than Windows 10. The question asks for the minimum release so choosing a newer but supported release is not correct.

Windows 8.1 does not provide the same modern MDM and Azure AD join capabilities that Windows 10 introduced and Microsoft ended extended support for Windows 8.1 in January 2023. For those reasons it cannot be relied on to receive all Intune device policies and it is not the correct answer.

Windows 8 is even older and reached end of support before Windows 8.1. It lacks the enrollment and MDM features required for full Intune policy application and it is not a valid minimum for modern Intune management.

When a question asks for the minimum supported OS focus on the lowest release that still supports Azure AD join and full MDM enrollment rather than picking the newest supported version.

The correct answer is Create a separate label publishing policy that contains the “Top Tier Confidential” label and target it exclusively to the Legal team.

Creating a separate label publishing policy and targeting it only to the Legal team ensures that the label is visible and available only to those users. Label publishing policies determine which labels are distributed to which users and groups and targeting a policy at the Legal team limits visibility without affecting other departments.

Edit the existing sensitivity label and add the Legal team to its scope is incorrect because changing the label itself does not control which users can see or receive the label. Visibility and distribution are managed through publishing policies rather than the label object alone.

Create a new sensitivity label called “Top Tier Confidential” and publish it to the entire organization is incorrect because publishing to the entire organization would expose the label to all departments and not meet the requirement to restrict it to Legal.

Modify the current label publishing policy to distribute the “Top Tier Confidential” label to every user in the tenant is incorrect because that action would make the label available to every user and would not keep it hidden from other departments.

When an exam scenario asks to restrict label visibility think about publishing policies and group targeting rather than changing label content or publishing to the whole tenant.

Anti-phishing is correct because Microsoft 365 Defender uses its anti-phishing policies to detect and block unauthenticated and impersonated senders before messages reach employees.

The Anti-phishing policy includes checks for sender authentication and impersonation. It uses signals such as SPF DKIM and DMARC and includes spoof intelligence and mailbox intelligence to stop messages that pretend to be from trusted senders or domains.

Safe Attachments is incorrect because it focuses on scanning and sandboxing attachments to detect malware rather than validating who sent the message.

Anti-spam is incorrect because it targets bulk and unsolicited messages with spam filtering heuristics and reputation checks rather than enforcing sender authentication and impersonation protections.

Safe Links is incorrect because it rewrites and scans URLs to protect users from malicious links and does not perform sender authentication checks.

When a question asks about verifying or blocking unauthenticated senders or stopping impersonation think Anti-phishing rather than spam filtering or attachment and link protections.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is cloud sync.

cloud sync is the Microsoft capability that synchronizes on premises Active Directory objects to Contoso Entra ID and it provides attribute mapping, scoping filters, and on demand provisioning so administrators can validate configuration changes before they are applied.

staging mode is used to run an Azure AD Connect server in a standby or failover state and it does not perform the cloud based provisioning and attribute mapping described in the question.

password hash synchronization is an authentication synchronization method that copies password hashes to Entra ID so users can sign in, and it does not provide object provisioning, attribute mapping, or scoping filter features.

pass through authentication is an authentication mechanism that validates user credentials against the on premises Active Directory in real time and it does not handle object synchronization or the provisioning capabilities mentioned.

When a question mentions synchronizing directory objects with attribute mapping and scoping, think of cloud sync or cloud provisioning rather than options that only handle authentication.

The correct option is 26 weeks.

Microsoft Defender for Endpoint retains telemetry and event data for up to 180 days which corresponds to 26 weeks. This is the maximum built in retention period for endpoint telemetry and it covers the raw telemetry used for alerts, investigations, and advanced hunting. If you require retention beyond this period you must export logs to an external archive or a SIEM for longer term storage.

52 weeks is incorrect because the service does not provide a built in retention period of a full year. The maximum native retention is 180 days rather than 52 weeks, so year long storage requires exporting data.

4 weeks is incorrect because that is much shorter than the maximum retention. Four weeks is not the platform maximum and would only apply if you intentionally retained data for a shorter time outside the product.

13 weeks is incorrect because it equals about 91 days which is less than the supported maximum of 180 days. The built in retention is longer than 13 weeks.

Remember that Defender for Endpoint keeps telemetry for up to 26 weeks or 180 days. If an exam scenario asks about longer retention think about exporting to a SIEM or cloud storage for archival.

The correct answer is New-OMEConfiguration.

New-OMEConfiguration is the Exchange Online PowerShell cmdlet that you run to create a new Office Message Encryption configuration and you can specify message expiration as part of that configuration when creating the policy. Use this cmdlet when you need to establish an OME policy that defines how long encrypted messages remain accessible to external recipients.

Set-OMEConfiguration is incorrect because that cmdlet is used to modify an existing OME configuration rather than to create a new one.

Cloud KMS is incorrect because it refers to a cloud key management service and not to an Exchange Online PowerShell cmdlet for configuring OME message expiry.

Set-TransportRule is incorrect because transport rules manage message flow actions and conditions and they do not create the OME configuration that sets message expiration.

Remember that cmdlets that start with New are used to create resources and cmdlets that start with Set are used to modify resources. Choose a New cmdlet when the task is to create a configuration.

The correct option is Microsoft 365 Admin Center.

Microsoft 365 Admin Center is the console where administrators manage subscriptions, licensing, and support for Microsoft 365 services and applications. Activation problems for Microsoft 365 apps are usually related to licensing or tenant configuration so opening a support request from this admin center gives Microsoft the tenant context and the subscription details needed to troubleshoot and resolve the issue.

Microsoft Entra ID is focused on identity and access management such as users, groups, and authentication. It does not provide the subscription and support workflow used to resolve app activation or licensing problems.

Azure portal is used to manage Azure resources and Azure subscriptions. It is the right place to open support requests for Azure services but not for Microsoft 365 app activation which is handled through the Microsoft 365 admin experience.

Endpoint Manager admin center is intended for device and application management with Intune. It is appropriate for deploying and managing apps on devices but it is not the primary console for tenant licensing or Microsoft 365 activation support requests.

When a question mentions licensing, activation, or subscription related problems think of the Microsoft 365 Admin Center first and look for the support or service request option in the admin menus.

The correct answer is Azure AD Connect. It is the tool Microsoft recommends to keep on premises Active Directory identities synchronized with Azure AD.

Azure AD Connect provides built in synchronization features such as password hash synchronization, pass through authentication, federation integration, writeback options, and filtering rules. It also supports staging mode and integrates with monitoring and health features so administrators can manage and troubleshoot the hybrid identity environment.

Azure DevOps is a development and CI CD platform and it does not perform directory synchronization between on premises Active Directory and Azure AD.

Google Cloud Directory Sync is a Google tool for syncing LDAP or Active Directory accounts to Google Workspace or Cloud Identity and it is not used for syncing to Azure AD.

Azure Logic Apps is a workflow automation service and it is not the vendor recommended solution for directory synchronization.

When a question asks which vendor recommended tool syncs on premises Active Directory to Azure AD look for Azure AD Connect and eliminate options that are development, automation, or Google workspace tools.

The correct answer is Azure Active Directory conditional access.

Azure Active Directory conditional access provides an identity driven policy engine that evaluates signals such as the user, the device, the device location, and the session risk and then enforces allow, block, or additional control requirements for each access attempt. It is designed to support a Zero Trust model by making dynamic access decisions based on risk and device posture at sign in and during sessions.

Azure Blob Storage is a storage service for objects and it does not provide an identity based policy engine to evaluate user device location or session risk for each access attempt.

Azure Kubernetes Service is a managed container orchestration platform and it is not intended to make identity driven access decisions based on session risk or device location.

Azure Virtual Machines are compute resources and they do not include built in conditional access controls to evaluate session risk or device location at the identity layer.

When a question asks about making access decisions based on the user, the device, the location, or the session risk choose identity based controls such as Azure AD Conditional Access and look for wording about dynamic policies or signals.

Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is the correct option.

DLP enforces policies that detect sensitive information and then block or restrict sharing and movement of that content across productivity apps and supported cloud services.

DLP can inspect files, emails, chats, and cloud storage and apply actions such as blocking, encrypting, or alerting to prevent unauthorized exfiltration of confidential information.

Microsoft Purview Content Explorer is incorrect because Content Explorer is intended for searching and exploring content across your estate and it does not by itself enforce prevention policies to stop sharing or movement.

Microsoft Purview Activity Explorer is incorrect because Activity Explorer focuses on viewing user and admin activity and investigation data and it does not provide the policy enforcement needed to block or control data movement.

Microsoft Purview Data Classification is incorrect because classification helps identify and label sensitive data for visibility and downstream controls but it does not by itself enforce blocking or restrictions across apps and cloud services the way a DLP solution does.

When a question asks about preventing unauthorized sharing or movement across apps and clouds look for keywords like prevent and control movement and choose the DLP feature that enforces policies to block or protect data.

The correct option is On demand provisioning.

On demand provisioning lets an administrator trigger provisioning for a single user so they can validate synchronization behavior and attribute updates without affecting the rest of the directory. It is intended for trialing changes and confirming that mappings and rules work as expected before a full tenant rollout.

Attribute mapping is not correct because mapping defines how attributes flow between on premises AD and Microsoft Entra ID and it does not by itself provide a way to run a one off test on a single account. Mapping changes still require a targeted or scheduled provisioning action to validate results.

Accidental deletion safeguards is not correct because those safeguards are protections to prevent mass deletes during sync and they do not enable you to provision or test a single user. They are safety controls rather than diagnostic or test features.

Scoping filters is not correct because filters limit which objects are included in sync across the directory and they are useful for partitioning or excluding objects for ongoing sync. They do not provide a way to immediately trigger provisioning for a single account to validate a configuration change.

When a question asks about testing changes on a single user think of features that let you trigger provisioning for one object. Try to identify options that describe a one off or manual provisioning action and avoid features that are about global rules or protections.

Enable pay as you go billing in Azure then turn on Microsoft 365 Backup and then create backup policies for OneDrive SharePoint and Exchange is correct.

You must enable pay as you go billing in Azure first because the backup service needs a billing and storage account to provision retention and storage for Microsoft 365 workloads. After billing is enabled you turn on Microsoft 365 Backup so the service can register your tenant and present workload protection options. The final step is to create backup policies for OneDrive SharePoint and Exchange so that the service knows what to protect and how long to retain data.

Create backup policies first then enable pay as you go billing and finally turn on Microsoft 365 Backup is incorrect because you cannot create and apply backup policies before the backup service is enabled and billing is configured to provision storage.

Turn on Microsoft 365 Backup then enable pay as you go billing and then create backup policies is incorrect because the backup service requires billing to be active before it can provision the necessary storage and fully register protection for your tenant.

Activate Microsoft 365 Backup then define backup policies and lastly enable pay as you go billing is incorrect for the same reason. Billing must be enabled before or at the time you enable the backup service so that storage and retention can be allocated.

On order questions think about prerequisites and resources. Usually you must enable billing or subscription before you can turn on a cloud service and then you can configure policies or settings.

The correct answer is Threat policies.

Safe Links is a URL protection feature that is managed with other anti-phishing and threat protection controls and these controls are grouped under the threat protection section of the security console. You edit Safe Links rules from that area because it contains the Safe Links policy settings and the actions for URL scanning and rewriting.

Policies and rules is incorrect because it is a generic label and not the specific console area used to configure Safe Links. The console uses the Threat policies section to hold Safe Links policies rather than a general policies page.

Security and compliance is incorrect because it describes the broader portal and not the specific Threat policies area where Safe Links is configured. The old Security and Compliance Center experience is being replaced by newer Defender portals so this wording is less likely on newer exams.

User management is incorrect because user management controls accounts and permissions and does not include threat protection features like Safe Links. Configuring URL protection requires the Threat policies area not user account settings.

When an exam asks where to modify a security feature think about the function and look for the portal area that matches it. For Safe Links check under Threat policies or threat protection settings in the security console.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is Notification sent to the Microsoft Authenticator app, 11 days.

Notification sent to the Microsoft Authenticator app, 11 days is correct because Microsoft’s security defaults require users to register for multi factor authentication using the Microsoft Authenticator app as the primary interactive method and the configured enrollment window for this scenario is 11 days from first sign in for the user to complete registration.

Call to the registered phone, 75 days is incorrect because security defaults do not present a phone call as the primary default method and the 75 day timeframe is not the registration period used by the defaults.

Temporary Access Pass issued by an admin, 36 days is incorrect because a Temporary Access Pass is an admin issued recovery or onboarding credential and it is not the default interactive MFA method presented by security defaults. The 36 day period is also not the enrollment window applied by the defaults.

Text message to a mobile number, 9 days is incorrect because SMS is not the primary default method under security defaults and the 9 day value does not match the registration window provided when the defaults enforce MFA enrollment.

When you see security defaults in a question think of the Microsoft Authenticator push notification as the default MFA method and verify the registration window mentioned against what the defaults enforce.

The correct option is Inactive.

Inactive is correct because information barrier rules in this state are configured but not enforced and they will not block user communication until the security team intentionally enables them. Leaving rules inactive allows administrators to validate group membership and rule logic and it prevents accidental disruption to business workflows while the team prepares for enforcement.

Pending review is incorrect because that label implies an internal status rather than a clear non‑enforcing configuration and it does not guarantee that rules will remain unenforced during testing and validation.

Active is incorrect because activating rules applies enforcement immediately and that can block communications and workflows before the security team has completed testing and stakeholder sign off.

Draft is incorrect because drafts indicate work in progress and may not represent a fully configured rule set that can be reliably tested at scale. It is safer to finalize rules and then leave them Inactive until the team is ready to enforce them.

When building policies leave them inactive while you validate with test groups and stakeholders so you can catch configuration mistakes before enforcement.

Authorize the provider as a “Delegated Admin” in the Microsoft 365 admin center and assign the “Admin Agent” role is correct.

The Admin Agent delegated privilege in the partner model lets an external provider manage users and assign administrative roles while keeping tenant security controls under the customer’s control. That role is scoped to administration tasks and does not grant rights to change tenant multi factor authentication policies or security defaults which are configured in Microsoft Entra ID and require tenant Global Administrator privileges.

Create a custom role in Microsoft Entra ID that grants user management and role assignment but explicitly excludes permissions for security settings and MFA policies is incorrect because custom roles cannot reliably replace tenant governance for all security controls. Custom roles can provide fine grained permissions but granting role assignment and excluding every relevant security permission is error prone and tenant MFA and conditional access remain tenant level settings.

Authorize the provider as a “Delegated Admin” in the Microsoft 365 admin center and assign the “Global Administrator” role is incorrect because Global Administrator grants full tenant control. That level of access would allow the provider to modify multi factor authentication and other security settings and so it does not meet the requirement to prevent provider management of MFA.

Grant the provider the read oriented “Helpdesk Agent” role and require escalation through the Microsoft Entra admin center for role assignment tasks is incorrect because the Helpdesk Agent role is read oriented and does not include the ability to assign administrative roles. Requiring escalations would add operational friction and would not satisfy the requirement that the provider be able to assign roles while being prevented from managing MFA.

When a question involves delegated partner access focus on the scope of the partner role and whether the action requires tenant level Global Administrator rights because MFA and conditional access are managed at the tenant level.

The cmdlet to create a Safe Links policy is New-SafeLinksPolicy.

New-SafeLinksPolicy is the creation cmdlet provided in the Exchange and security PowerShell modules and you use it to add a new Safe Links policy for your organization. It creates the policy object that defines URL rewriting and scanning behavior and it accepts parameters for the policy name, actions, and scope so you can configure the intended protections.

Set-SafeLinksPolicy is used to modify an existing Safe Links policy rather than to create a new one so it is not the correct cmdlet for adding a policy.

New-SafeLinksRule is not the cmdlet for creating Safe Links policies and in the relevant modules rules are a different concept from policies so creating a policy requires the New-SafeLinksPolicy cmdlet.

Set-SafeLinksRule would be used to change an existing rule and it does not create a new policy so it is not the right choice.

When a task requires you to create a resource choose cmdlets that start with New and when you need to change an existing resource look for cmdlets that start with Set.

The correct role is Support Services Administrator.

Support Services Administrator grants the permissions required to view and investigate service health advisories and to use support tools for SummitCloud Workplace services while avoiding broad administrative privileges.

This role follows the principle of least privilege because it scopes Alex to support and health advisory tasks rather than giving full administrative or unrelated capabilities.

Message Board Reader provides read only access to message board content and it does not include the support or service health investigation permissions Alex needs.

Compliance Manager focuses on compliance controls and policy management and it is not intended for viewing service health advisories or performing support investigations.

Analytics Reports Reader grants access to analytics and reporting data and it does not include the support tools or health advisory visibility required to investigate service issues.

When a question asks about viewing or investigating service health choose the role that explicitly references support or service health and verify it adheres to the principle of least privilege.

The correct option is policy and label.

A policy in Microsoft 365 is applied at a location level and can cover Exchange mailboxes SharePoint sites OneDrive accounts and Microsoft 365 Groups so a single policy can retain or delete content across many places.

A label is applied to individual items and you can tag an email or document with a label to retain or dispose of that specific item rather than an entire location.

The option label and policy is incorrect because the first blank refers to a location wide construct and that is a policy while the second blank refers to an item level construct and that is a label so the order is reversed.

The option rule and setting is incorrect because those are not the standard Microsoft 365 terms for retention controls and the exam uses policy and label terminology.

The option policy and tag is incorrect because although policy is right for the first blank the word tag does not match the modern term used to mark items and the older term tag or retention tags were used historically in Exchange so it is less likely to be correct on newer exams.

When a blank refers to where retention is applied think policy. When a blank refers to the specific email or document think label.

No is correct. The Reports area in the Microsoft 365 admin portal is intended for usage and activity metrics and it is not the right place to get a count of Exchange Online outages over the past 45 days.

The Microsoft 365 admin center provides a Service health or Health dashboard that lists incidents and advisories and that is where administrators review outages and service incidents. Use that Health or Service health view to inspect incident history and to determine how many times Exchange Online was unavailable.

If you need to gather outage counts programmatically you can query the service health or service communications APIs rather than relying on the Reports pages. The APIs and the Service health dashboard will give you incident records and details that you can count and analyze.

Yes is incorrect because the Reports area focuses on user activity and usage statistics and it does not provide the outage or incident logs needed to determine how many times Exchange Online was unavailable.

When a question asks about outages focus on the Service health or Health pages in the admin center because Reports show usage and activity not incident history.

The correct answer is custom.

Contoso Identity Password Protection enforces a global banned password list for all accounts and provides a custom banned password list that administrators use to add organization specific entries. The custom list is intended for company names and other tenant specific terms that you want to block in addition to the global set.

directory is incorrect because that term typically refers to the Azure Active Directory instance and it is not the official name of the configurable banned password list. The feature to add organization specific entries is the custom banned password list.

tenant is incorrect because tenant describes your Azure AD instance and not the banned list name. Administrators add entries per tenant but the list itself is called custom.

organization is incorrect because although entries are organization specific the official product term for the second list is custom and not organization.

When a question asks for an exact product term remember to choose the name used in the documentation such as custom rather than synonyms like tenant or directory. Focus on the precise terminology.

The correct answer is Elevated risk delivery pool.

Exchange Online Protection isolates potentially compromised mailboxes to protect the shared sending reputation and the Elevated risk delivery pool is the tier used for the most suspicious outbound traffic. Messages routed to the Elevated risk delivery pool are subject to stronger throttling and reputation controls so healthy tenant traffic is not harmed while administrators investigate the source of the spam.

No risk delivery pool is incorrect because that pool is for mail that shows no indicators of compromise and would not be used for suspected outbound spam.

Moderate risk delivery pool is incorrect because that tier is for medium risk activity and not for the high risk behavior that warrants isolating traffic to preserve service reputation.

Low risk delivery pool is incorrect because that pool is meant for minor concerns and not for the suspected compromise scenarios that require the elevated risk treatment.

When a question mentions protecting service reputation from suspected compromised accounts think about isolation and throttling and choose the option that indicates the highest level of risk such as elevated.

The correct option is A retention rule created in the Microsoft Purview compliance portal.

The retention rule in Microsoft Purview is the proper choice because it can preserve email and documents across Microsoft 365 workloads for a defined period and it supports long term retention and holds for legal or regulatory requirements. You can configure it to preserve content for nine years and it applies broadly to mailboxes and content locations so that the required personal data remains intact and discoverable.

A data loss prevention policy in the Exchange admin center is incorrect because DLP policies focus on detecting and preventing sensitive data leakage and they do not enforce long term preservation of items for regulatory retention periods.

A retention policy configured in the Exchange admin center is incorrect in this context because Exchange admin center retention settings are not the centralized, cross‑workload retention mechanism that Microsoft Purview provides and modern compliance scenarios and exams expect retention to be managed from Purview for organization wide requirements.

A data loss prevention policy in the Microsoft Purview compliance portal is incorrect because DLP in Purview is likewise intended to prevent and monitor data loss and to enforce protection actions, but it does not implement long term retention rules or legal holds that preserve content for a specified retention period.

For exam questions about long term preservation choose retention or retention rule in Microsoft Purview and not DLP. DLP is for prevention and protection rather than for enforcing retention periods.

The correct option is Purchase services.

The Purchase services page is where administrators add new Microsoft 365 subscriptions and adjust license quantities. This page walks administrators through buying services and links to the license management workflows so that purchases can be followed by assigning or reassigning licenses to users.

Billing is focused on invoices, payment methods, and billing profiles and it does not provide the purchase workflow for new subscriptions or the interfaces used to assign licenses.

Tenant settings are for organization level policies and configuration and they are not used to buy subscriptions or directly manage user licenses.

Products and subscriptions lists the subscriptions you already have and shows status and details but the procurement and add subscription flows are handled on the Purchase services page rather than on that listing view.

When a question asks where to buy or add services look for pages named Purchase or Buy and remember that Billing relates to invoices and payments not procurement.

Perform all of these tasks in the Microsoft 365 admin center is the correct option.

The Microsoft 365 admin center supports creating individual mail contacts with email addresses and phone numbers and it also supports importing multiple contacts from a CSV file and it allows editing existing contact details. Administrators can use the Add a mail contact experience to create a single contact, use the bulk import or CSV upload features to add many contacts at once, and open a contact record to update phone numbers email addresses or other properties.

Import multiple contacts from a CSV file is not the best single answer because it describes only one of the tasks that Maya must perform. The admin center can do this but the complete answer must cover all listed actions.

Modify existing contact details is something you can do by editing a mail contact in the admin center but it is incomplete by itself. That option omits the creation and bulk import capabilities that are also required.

Create individual mail contacts with email addresses and phone numbers is supported through the Add a mail contact workflow but it only addresses creating single contacts. It does not by itself cover bulk import or ongoing edits so it is not the correct choice alone.

Read every choice and verify whether each listed action is supported by the service. If the platform can perform each action then an option stating all of these is likely the best answer.

The correct options are Produce audit and usage reports to support compliance and operational decisions, Investigate applications that receive high risk or suspicious scores, and Implement conditional access rules to control app access based on risk signals.

Producing audit and usage reports gives administrators the evidence they need to meet compliance obligations and to see which applications are widely used or carry potential exposure. Reports help prioritize remediation by showing scope and user adoption so that efforts focus on the highest impact issues.

Investigating applications that receive high risk or suspicious scores lets teams validate whether a finding is a true risk or a false positive. Investigation provides context about user behavior and app traffic which supports targeted responses rather than disruptive broad actions.

Implementing conditional access rules allows administrators to apply risk based controls so access can be restricted or challenged for risky sessions while preserving access for safe use. Conditional access is a way to enforce policies dynamically based on signals from discovery and risk scoring.

Immediately block every unsanctioned application without assessment is incorrect because blanket blocking can interrupt legitimate business processes and create operational problems. Administrators should assess risk and use reports and conditional controls to take measured, proportionate actions rather than immediate universal blocking.

When choosing answers prefer options that describe evidence based actions and risk based controls. Look for choices that mention reports, investigate, or conditional access as these indicate measured responses.

The correct option is Create one 6 year organization retention policy for all executive mailboxes and apply an 8 year retention label specifically to the CEO mailbox.

This approach gives a single baseline retention that covers all executive mailboxes and then uses a retention label to extend retention only for the CEO. Organization level retention policies are simple to manage and they provide the default 6 year retention with minimal administrative overhead. A retention label can be applied to the CEO mailbox or to items in that mailbox to ensure an 8 year retention period without creating additional tenant wide policies.

Place the CEO mailbox on litigation hold and rely on the standard retention configuration for the other executive mailboxes is incorrect because litigation hold preserves content until the hold is removed and it is intended for legal preservation rather than enforcing a fixed compliance retention period. Using litigation hold would overpreserve and add administrative complexity for a simple time bound requirement.

Create two distinct retention policies with one set to 8 years targeting the CEO mailbox and another set to 6 years targeting the other executive mailboxes is incorrect because it meets the requirement but increases policy count and ongoing management. The question asks for minimal administrative work and using labels for exceptions is a cleaner way to keep policy count low.

Apply a single 8 year retention policy to all executive mailboxes and then create 6 year retention labels for the remaining executives is incorrect because you cannot use a label to shorten retention below a longer applied policy. A tenant or mailbox level policy that enforces 8 years would prevent a 6 year label from reducing that retention, so this would not meet the requirement for the non CEO executives.

When a question asks for minimal administrative effort prefer a single organization level policy for the baseline and use retention labels for exceptions.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is: Import Accounts Enable Directory Synchronization and Manage Devices.

Import Accounts Enable Directory Synchronization and Manage Devices is correct because that phase is focused on bringing user identities into the environment and establishing synchronization between directories so accounts remain consistent. This phase covers bulk or staged account import, configuring directory synchronization tools to connect on premises directories or other identity stores, and preparing device registration and guest access flows so external users can be invited and managed.

Set Identity and Access Management Policies is incorrect because defining policies is about access controls and governance rather than the initial onboarding and synchronization of user accounts.

Configure and Maintain Applications is incorrect because application configuration addresses integrating and maintaining app registrations and single sign on, which does not directly describe importing accounts or enabling directory synchronization.

Audit Elevated Privileges Conduct an Access Review and Handle User Lifecycle is incorrect because auditing and access reviews happen after accounts exist and are more about ongoing governance and the lifecycle rather than the initial account import and directory synchronization phase.

When a question asks about bringing users into the system look for words like import or synchronization because they usually point to the onboarding phase rather than policy or audit phases.

The correct option is Monitor > Service health.

Service Health notifications are surfaced in the portal under the Monitor area and specifically on the Service health blade. The Monitor experience aggregates platform incidents, advisory notifications, and resource health so you can see tailored alerts that affect your workloads in one place.

Settings > Service health is incorrect because the Settings area is for subscription and portal configuration and it does not host the Service Health notifications view.

Resources > Service health is incorrect because the Resources area lists your resources and resource groups and it does not provide the centralized service incident and health dashboard.

Services > Service health is incorrect because the Services or service catalog areas are not where portal health notifications and incident details are shown.

Management > Service health is incorrect because management sections focus on governance and administrative tools rather than the Service Health notifications that appear in Monitor.

When you need to find portal health alerts look under Monitor and then open Service health so you see incidents, advisories, and resource health in one place.