MS-102 Microsoft 365 Administration Expert Practice Exams

A workstation at Rivermark Shipping is exhibiting abnormal behavior with unusual outbound traffic and unfamiliar processes running on it. To prevent other systems from being affected which Microsoft 365 Defender capability should you use to cut off that workstation from the network?

• ❏ A. Threat intelligence

• ❏ B. Automated response

• ❏ C. Network segmentation

• ❏ D. Device isolation

A regional retailer is configuring an Insider Risk Management rule and wants to rank where to focus monitoring by content importance. Which of the following items cannot be set as a prioritization target?

• ❏ A. Detected sensitive information types

• ❏ B. Document sensitivity labels

• ❏ C. SharePoint site collections

• ❏ D. Email domains

Which tasks can administrators perform with the IdFix utility when preparing to synchronize identities to Fabrikam Cloud? (Choose 3)

• ❏ A. Scan all domains in the currently authenticated forest for object attribute issues

• ❏ B. Edit object attributes and apply confirmed corrections directly from the IdFix interface

• ❏ C. Export scan results to CSV or LDF for offline remediation

• ❏ D. Automatically remedy every synchronization error without administrator confirmation

Your company uses Microsoft 365 E5 and the accounting team handles highly confidential records. You need to prevent accounting staff from opening potentially dangerous websites that are embedded as hyperlinks in emails and documents while leaving other teams unaffected. What should you configure?

• ❏ A. Create a Data Loss Prevention policy that uses content inspection to detect sensitive accounting data

• ❏ B. Deploy a tailored Safe Links policy that targets the accounting group

• ❏ C. Leave the tenantwide Safe Links configuration in place for all users

• ❏ D. Create a mail flow rule to reject messages that contain known malicious URLs

Your team at Meridian Solutions needs to boost Microsoft 365 responsiveness for offices across multiple continents. Which of the following metrics is not displayed by the Network connectivity insights dashboard?

• ❏ A. TCP round trip latency

• ❏ B. DNS query resolution time

• ❏ C. Individual user bandwidth consumption

• ❏ D. Exchange Online connection health score

Are data loss prevention policies limited solely to Exchange Online SharePoint Online and OneDrive for Business or do they also protect sensitive data in other places such as Teams conversations Office desktop applications and on-premises file servers?

• ❏ A. FALSE

• ❏ B. TRUE

Which of the following assertions about Contoso Identity Conditional Access accurately describe how its policies operate and what licensing is required? (Choose 2)

• ❏ A. Contoso Identity Conditional Access policies are applied before the initial sign in factor completes

• ❏ B. Contoso Identity Conditional Access can evaluate the IP address or network location when making policy decisions

• ❏ C. The Conditional Access capability is included in the free edition of Contoso Identity

• ❏ D. Administrators can create policies in Contoso Identity Conditional Access that require multifactor authentication for users assigned to administrative roles

You are the security lead at Meridian Tech and you want to observe Safe Links from an end user perspective. What happens when an employee clicks a malicious hyperlink in a received email?

• ❏ A. Cloud Armor inspects and filters the link traffic at the edge

• ❏ B. The email is removed from the recipient’s inbox immediately

• ❏ C. Safe Links routes the clicked URL to a secured verification server that checks it against a blocklist and displays a warning when it is malicious

• ❏ D. The recipient is taken directly to the linked site without any inspection

You manage user groups for a retail startup called BrightCart and you want two staff members to be able to administer a group when one person is unavailable. What is the recommended practice?

• ❏ A. Use Cloud Identity group roles

• ❏ B. Create a shared service account for managers to use

• ❏ C. Assign two or more owners to the group

• ❏ D. Grant one owner and configure a delegated access account

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

You manage an Azure Active Directory tenant for Northwind Labs and a conditional access policy applies to every user for an application called CloudAppX. The policy requires multi factor authentication for requests evaluated against recognized locations and the tenant is set to trust the 192.168.10.0/24 IP range while the recognized locations are defined as LocationAlpha 192.168.30.0/24 and LocationBeta 192.168.60.0/24 Which of the following connection scenarios would require a user to complete multi factor authentication when accessing CloudAppX?

• ❏ A. A user signs in from IP 192.168.60.22

• ❏ B. A user signs in from IP 192.168.10.45

• ❏ C. A user signs in from IP 192.168.80.100

• ❏ D. A user signs in from IP 192.168.30.5

Within the Compliance Manager dashboard which tab breaks down the ratio of points earned to points available by solution?

• ❏ A. Remediation tasks

• ❏ B. Assessment view

• ❏ C. Notification rules

• ❏ D. Solutions tab

Your company recently purchased a Contoso 365 E5 subscription and you are the security administrator. You must evaluate the current Safe Links configuration against Contoso’s recommended best practices. Which tool should you use to perform this assessment efficiently?

• ❏ A. Microsoft Defender portal

• ❏ B. Secure Score

• ❏ C. Configuration Analyzer

• ❏ D. Compliance Manager

Your team at Meridian Financial is onboarding a new client and received an Excel file with 240 staff names and email addresses that must be added to their Microsoft 365 tenant. What is the quickest and most efficient way to add all of these accounts to the tenant?

• ❏ A. Install Azure AD Connect on a server and enable directory synchronization

• ❏ B. Save the spreadsheet as a CSV and use the Microsoft 365 admin center bulk user import

• ❏ C. Use PowerShell to read the Excel file and script the creation of users in Entra ID

• ❏ D. Run Azure CLI scripts to parse the spreadsheet and provision user accounts in Entra ID

You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a regional consulting firm named CedarBridge. The firm maintains separate on-premises and Entra ID identity systems and employees sign in to Exchange Online and SharePoint Online with Entra ID accounts. You want staff to use their Entra ID credentials to access internal on-premises web applications. Which Azure option allows users to access an on-premises web application?

• ❏ A. Azure Application Gateway

• ❏ B. Register an enterprise application in Entra ID

• ❏ C. Deploy an Application Proxy connector

• ❏ D. Install and configure Microsoft Entra Connect

Riverside Solutions uses Microsoft Purview Information Protection to protect corporate documents and email. You need to ensure sensitivity labels appear for employees inside Microsoft Office applications. What sequence of steps will accomplish this?

• ❏ A. Create a label policy first then create sensitivity labels then configure label settings then publish the label policy

• ❏ B. Create sensitivity labels then configure label settings then publish the label policy then create a label policy

• ❏ C. Create sensitivity labels then configure label settings then create a label policy then publish the label policy

• ❏ D. Configure label settings then create sensitivity labels then publish the label policy then create a label policy

Meridian Retail runs a centralized security logging platform and wants to bring Microsoft 365 Defender alerts and telemetry into that platform for dependable and scalable security analysis, what is the best method to integrate this data?

• ❏ A. Enable periodic manual exports from Microsoft 365 Defender to the log platform

• ❏ B. Deploy a custom collector agent on the log server to fetch Defender data

• ❏ C. Ingest Defender telemetry via the Microsoft 365 Defender APIs

• ❏ D. Stream Defender alerts into Google Cloud Pub/Sub using a connectors pipeline

Which statements about provisioning and administering groups in Microsoft 365 are correct? (Choose 3)

• ❏ A. A legacy distribution list can be migrated to a Microsoft 365 group in the admin center

• ❏ B. Every user who accesses a shared mailbox must have an individual Microsoft 365 license

• ❏ C. Security groups can be assigned to control access rights on resources and applications

• ❏ D. Creating a Microsoft 365 group also provisions a shared mailbox and a group calendar

Daniel is the identity administrator at a regional technology firm that frequently partners with outside vendors and contractors. He must provision and manage different user accounts in Microsoft Entra to protect access to company resources. Which tasks can Daniel perform in Microsoft Entra to administer internal users and outside collaborators?

• ❏ A. Invite outside collaborators as guest users with restricted permissions

• ❏ B. Create internal staff accounts and assign specific roles or group memberships

• ❏ C. Enable self service password reset for both internal and guest accounts

• ❏ D. All of the above actions

You are a compliance officer at a regional insurance firm and you need to assign limited administrative rights for sensitivity labels. Which role groups can you add employees to in order to provide that delegated access?

• ❏ A. Security Administrators

• ❏ B. Information Protection Analysts

• ❏ C. Any of the listed Information Protection role groups

• ❏ D. Information Protection Admins

As the security administrator for Atlas Retail you need to examine every authentication event to compute a risk score from the collected sign-in signals and detectors. Which Identity Protection policy should you activate to perform that per sign-in analysis?

• ❏ A. User risk policy

• ❏ B. Azure AD Conditional Access policy

• ❏ C. MFA registration policy

• ❏ D. Sign-in risk policy

You administer identity services for a mid sized firm that recently deployed a new Azure AD tenant and synchronized the on premises Active Directory. After reviewing the Azure AD Connect Health report you discover that twelve user accounts in a particular Organizational Unit failed to synchronize. What action should you take to resolve this synchronization failure?

• ❏ A. Add a new inbound synchronization rule in Azure AD Connect

• ❏ B. Edit the existing outbound synchronization rule in Azure AD Connect

• ❏ C. Update the Azure AD Connect settings to include the affected Organizational Unit in the synchronization scope

• ❏ D. Create a new outbound synchronization rule in the Synchronization Rules Editor

You are a team lead at Horizon Tech seeking a healthier work life balance and you want a feature that helps you schedule time away from work. Which Viva Insights feature would you use to plan personal time off?

• ❏ A. Briefing emails from Viva in Outlook

• ❏ B. Viva Insights app in Teams

• ❏ C. Viva Insights add in for Outlook

• ❏ D. Viva Insights dashboard in the Microsoft 365 admin center

Does HarborTech have the ability to apply Information Barrier policies to guest accounts in Microsoft Teams?

• ❏ A. False

• ❏ B. True

In Contoso Cloud App Security what mechanism do app connectors use from application providers to increase visibility and allow control over the services you connect to?

• ❏ A. Webhooks

• ❏ B. APIs

• ❏ C. Service principals

• ❏ D. SAML metadata

• ❏ E. OAuth tokens

Northbridge Financial operates a hybrid identity environment that uses Entra Connect and users currently maintain separate passwords for their local and cloud accounts. As the identity administrator you enabled Pass-through Authentication so employees can use one password to access both on-site and cloud applications. Is this configuration correct?

• ❏ A. No

• ❏ B. Yes

As the people operations lead at Cascade Systems you want to analyze how often your staff schedule and attend meetings and how long those sessions last so you can adjust calendars and policies. Which Viva Insights tab displays aggregated meeting patterns for your team?

• ❏ A. Collaboration tab

• ❏ B. Wellbeing tab

• ❏ C. Productivity tab

• ❏ D. Group Insights tab

Maya is the security administrator for Bluewave Solutions and she manages sensitivity labels across the company Microsoft 365 environment. She recently published a set of labels and now plans to delete one label that is already applied to user files. What should Maya consider before she removes a sensitivity label that has been assigned to documents?

• ❏ A. Deleting the label will cause it to be removed from every document automatically within 48 hours

• ❏ B. Removing the label will immediately delete any encryption or rights management tied to the label

• ❏ C. The label identifier remains in each file’s metadata and applications will no longer display the label name

• ❏ D. Any user access restrictions that relied on the label will be revoked as soon as the label is deleted

A regional bookstore chain has observed a rise in phishing attempts this month and the security lead wants to use Microsoft 365 Threat Intelligence to investigate these incidents. Which capability should the team prioritize to determine the campaigns’ origins and the likely actor types?

• ❏ A. Concentrating on the total number of mail items scanned by the tenant

• ❏ B. Leveraging the Threat dashboard to gain broad visibility into global threat activity

• ❏ C. Using Attack simulation reports to evaluate user susceptibility to phishing

• ❏ D. Using Threat explorer to investigate individual malware and malicious message details

Acme Systems operates a Microsoft Entra ID tenant that contains six accounts. Four of those accounts are assigned the Help desk administrator, Privileged authentication administrator, Password administrator, and User administrator roles respectively. The sixth account holds the Global administrator role. Which role can reset the sixth user’s multifactor authentication settings?

• ❏ A. Password administrator

• ❏ B. Privileged authentication administrator

• ❏ C. Help desk administrator

• ❏ D. User administrator

Which organization is tasked with managing the global domain name system and coordinating domain name allocations?

• ❏ A. Internet Engineering Task Force

• ❏ B. Regional Internet Registries

• ❏ C. Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers

• ❏ D. World Wide Web Consortium

Your company needs to prevent confidential files from being exposed in every OneDrive account. Which two services should have their Status switched off while keeping the Status active for OneDrive accounts?

• ❏ A. SharePoint sites and Teams

• ❏ B. Exchange mail and SharePoint sites

• ❏ C. Microsoft Purview and Teams

• ❏ D. Exchange mail and Teams

You are the IT manager at a regional nonprofit and you notice staff are receiving more deceptive email attacks that try to steal credentials. Which Microsoft 365 service helps defend against sophisticated phishing campaigns?

• ❏ A. Microsoft Defender for Identity

• ❏ B. Microsoft Defender for Office 365

• ❏ C. Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention

• ❏ D. Exchange Online Protection

As the IT lead for Northbridge Technologies you must ensure your organization configures Microsoft 365 security features and uses recommended email protections. Which email authentication method should you deploy to prevent domain spoofing and cut down on spam?

• ❏ A. Microsoft Defender

• ❏ B. DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

• ❏ C. Insider Risk Management

• ❏ D. Sender Policy Framework (SPF)

When using PowerShell to add a Safe Attachments rule for an organization which component must be created first?

• ❏ A. Safe Attachments condition

• ❏ B. Safe Attachments policy

• ❏ C. Safe Links policy

• ❏ D. Safe Attachments exception

Which capability in Defender for Office 365 is intended to evaluate employees’ reactions to simulated phishing messages?

• ❏ A. Threat analytics

• ❏ B. Automated investigation and response

• ❏ C. Attack simulation training

• ❏ D. Safe Links policy

Riley manages identity services for a regional consultancy called HarborTech and she plans to introduce passwordless phone sign in using Microsoft Authenticator to reduce reliance on passwords. What prerequisites should she verify before turning on this capability?

• ❏ A. Require administrators to deploy FIDO2 security keys for every user

• ❏ B. Microsoft Authenticator must be installed only on Windows devices

• ❏ C. Ensure Azure Active Directory Multi Factor Authentication is enabled and push notifications are permitted as a verification method

• ❏ D. Users must keep a fixed password for fallback access

You are the IT manager at SummitTech reviewing Microsoft 365 adoption metrics for leadership reporting. Which metric is not provided directly by the Microsoft 365 usage analytics dashboard?

• ❏ A. Meeting length averages for Teams

• ❏ B. Active user counts per application

• ❏ C. Trends in tenant file storage consumption

• ❏ D. Individual employee productivity scores

Which of the following statements about Cloud Discovery in SentinelWorks Cloud Security is not accurate?

• ❏ A. Logs undergo a sequence of steps that include upload, parsing, analysis, and report creation

• ❏ B. Continuous reporting can be enabled by linking the service to an endpoint protection solution

• ❏ C. Cloud Discovery evaluates network traffic logs against a repository of more than 38,000 cloud applications

• ❏ D. Cloud Discovery can automatically add previously unknown applications to its catalog

You manage identity services for a regional retail chain that plans to deploy Azure AD Connect across several Active Directory forests. Which installation mode should you select for Azure AD Connect?

• ❏ A. Staged deployment

• ❏ B. Either Express or Custom Settings

• ❏ C. Express Settings

• ❏ D. Custom installation mode

You are the IT lead at a regional financial services company called North Ridge Systems and you must retain specific user information for an active litigation inquiry. Which Microsoft 365 feature should you apply to ensure targeted content cannot be altered or removed?

• ❏ A. Data loss prevention policies

• ❏ B. Retention labels and retention policies

• ❏ C. eDiscovery preservation hold

• ❏ D. Organization retention settings

You act as the Microsoft 365 tenant Global Administrator for Horizon Retail and you must remove a user mailbox from Exchange Online. Which PowerShell cmdlet should you execute?

• ❏ A. Remove-TeamUser

• ❏ B. Remove-MailboxPermission

• ❏ C. Remove-MsolUser

• ❏ D. Remove-Mailbox

You oversee the Microsoft 365 tenant for Nimbus Solutions and you must implement Conditional Access policies to strengthen sign in controls and access management. Which Azure Active Directory license tier is required to enable Conditional Access?

• ❏ A. Azure Active Directory Premium P2

• ❏ B. Office 365 Enterprise E3

• ❏ C. Azure Active Directory Free

• ❏ D. Azure Active Directory Premium P1

You manage the IT operations for a company that uses Contoso Cloud Email and one of your staff receives an email with an attached file. How does the Safe Attachments feature verify that the attachment is safe?

• ❏ A. It scans the attachment only with signature based antivirus engines

• ❏ B. It deletes the attachment immediately without delivering the message

• ❏ C. It detaches the file from the message and uploads it to cloud analysis where it is opened in a virtual sandbox to observe suspicious behavior

• ❏ D. It delivers the attachment straight to the recipient’s mailbox with no additional checks

You are the security lead at Meridian Systems and you need to design a custom data loss prevention policy for the organization. Which action is not typically included in the policy design process?

• ❏ A. Decide whether to start from a built in policy template or to create a custom policy

• ❏ B. Document the detailed configuration for each policy and review the settings with stakeholders

• ❏ C. Rename existing DLP rules to match the new naming convention

• ❏ D. Review the official Data Loss Prevention guidance and policy reference materials

A systems administrator at Contoso Technologies needs to change a user’s mailbox so that incoming email is forwarded to another address in the Contoso 365 administration portal. Which page in the admin portal should the administrator open to modify the forwarding setting?

• ❏ A. Licenses and Apps page

• ❏ B. Devices page

• ❏ C. Mail settings page

• ❏ D. Account page

A regional retailer named Northshire is setting up an on-premises Active Directory to provision accounts into its cloud identity service using Contoso Cloud Sync. Which actions can administrators perform when configuring Contoso Cloud Sync for provisioning from Active Directory into the cloud directory? (Choose 3)

• ❏ A. Customize attribute mappings between on-premises accounts and cloud directory objects

• ❏ B. Automatically repair all synchronization errors without administrator intervention

• ❏ C. Add scoping filters to synchronize selected organizational units and groups

• ❏ D. Run on-demand provisioning tests by applying changes to a single account

A regional nonprofit plans to roll out Data Loss Prevention across its Microsoft 365 environment. Which subscription must the organization hold in order to configure custom sensitive information types?

• ❏ A. Microsoft 365 E3

• ❏ B. Microsoft 365 Business Premium

• ❏ C. Microsoft 365 E5

• ❏ D. Office 365 E1

Which of the following states can be used when rolling out a Data Loss Prevention policy in Contoso 365? (Choose 4)

• ❏ A. Simulate the policy and display policy tips to users

• ❏ B. Keep the policy disabled

• ❏ C. Enable the policy immediately

• ❏ D. Run the policy in monitoring only mode

You are the cloud administrator for Northbridge IT and you need to determine which Microsoft 365 cloud services were recently changed or updated. What methods can you use to get this information? (Choose 2)

• ❏ A. Check the Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center for communications about service changes

• ❏ B. Open the Microsoft 365 admin mobile application to view recent notifications and alerts

• ❏ C. Review the Security and Compliance center dashboard

• ❏ D. Inspect the Service health overview in the Microsoft 365 admin center

Orion Logistics has enforced multi factor authentication for all staff and one employee who selected SMS delivery for codes has lost their mobile device. The security policy forbids turning off MFA under any circumstance. As the administrator what immediate action should you take?

• ❏ A. Enable self service password reset

• ❏ B. Reset the user’s account password

• ❏ C. Clear and reissue the user’s MFA enrollment

• ❏ D. Turn off multi factor authentication for the user

The correct answer is Device isolation.

Device isolation in Microsoft 365 Defender lets an administrator cut off a compromised workstation from the network while preserving local access for investigation. It blocks inbound and outbound network traffic from the device and prevents lateral movement to other systems so that the incident cannot spread.

Using Device isolation is the direct containment action to take when a host is exhibiting unusual outbound traffic and unfamiliar processes. This action immediately limits the host network connectivity and helps protect other systems while you investigate and remediate.

Threat intelligence provides contextual information about threats and indicators and it helps analysts understand what is happening, but it does not itself disconnect a device from the network. It is useful for detection and investigation but not for immediate containment.

Automated response refers to automated investigations and remediation workflows and it may include containment actions, but it is a broader capability rather than the specific action that severs network access. The exam asks for the specific containment feature which is device isolation.

Network segmentation is an architectural network control that limits traffic between zones and reduces blast radius, but it is not a Microsoft 365 Defender action you trigger to immediately isolate a single compromised workstation. It is a preventative design rather than an on-demand containment action.

When the question asks how to immediately stop a compromised host look for the specific containment action in the product. Remember that Device isolation is the on-demand action that severs network access for a single device.

Email domains is the correct option.

The Insider Risk Management prioritization setting is based on content importance and content signals, and Email domains represents an identity or routing attribute rather than a content attribute so it cannot be used as a prioritization target for content importance.

Detected sensitive information types is incorrect because sensitive information types are a direct content signal and can be used to prioritize alerts and monitoring by content importance.

Document sensitivity labels is incorrect because sensitivity labels are applied to files and messages to indicate content importance and they are supported as prioritization targets in Insider Risk Management.

SharePoint site collections is incorrect because the location of content is a common prioritization factor and site collections can be selected to focus monitoring on content stored in those locations.

When answering configuration questions consider whether the option is a content attribute or an identity attribute and choose content attributes when the feature is about prioritizing by content importance.

The correct answers are Scan all domains in the currently authenticated forest for object attribute issues, Edit object attributes and apply confirmed corrections directly from the IdFix interface, and Export scan results to CSV or LDF for offline remediation.

Scan all domains in the currently authenticated forest for object attribute issues is supported because IdFix is built to enumerate identity objects across the authenticated forest and flag attribute problems that can block synchronization. The tool locates common issues such as duplicate addresses invalid character sets and missing required attributes so you can address them before syncing.

Edit object attributes and apply confirmed corrections directly from the IdFix interface is correct because IdFix allows administrators to modify attributes in place and then apply those confirmed changes back to the source Active Directory. The workflow is interactive so you review proposed fixes before they are written to the directory.

Export scan results to CSV or LDF for offline remediation is correct because IdFix can export findings so you can perform bulk or offline remediation with other tools or processes and keep an audit of the reported issues.

Automatically remedy every synchronization error without administrator confirmation is incorrect because IdFix does not unilaterally fix every issue. The tool requires administrative review and confirmation for changes and some problems must be resolved manually in Active Directory or via other remediation steps.

When a question describes a tool as interactive expect options that require confirmation and choose features that match an audit and review workflow. Practicing IdFix on a non production forest will make the tool behaviors familiar.

The correct choice is Deploy a tailored Safe Links policy that targets the accounting group.

Safe Links is part of Microsoft Defender for Office 365 and it rewrites and scans URLs at the time of click to block known and emerging threats. You can scope Safe Links policies to specific users or groups so only the accounting team receives the stricter click time protection while other teams remain unaffected.

Create a Data Loss Prevention policy that uses content inspection to detect sensitive accounting data is incorrect because DLP is intended to detect and protect sensitive information and to control sharing. It does not provide click time URL rewriting and threat scanning like Safe Links does.

Leave the tenantwide Safe Links configuration in place for all users is incorrect because a tenantwide setting would apply the restriction to everyone and would not meet the requirement to limit protections only to the accounting staff.

Create a mail flow rule to reject messages that contain known malicious URLs is incorrect because transport rules act on messages in transit and can cause false positives or block legitimate mail. They also do not provide click time protection for links that become malicious after delivery.

When a question asks to restrict clicking on dangerous links for a specific group think of Safe Links policies because they can be targeted to users or groups while other controls serve different purposes.

The correct option is Individual user bandwidth consumption.

The Network connectivity insights dashboard in the Microsoft 365 admin tools focuses on aggregated network performance and service connection health across locations and endpoints. It surfaces metrics such as latency, packet loss, DNS timing, and service connection scores rather than per user traffic details. Because of that design the dashboard does not provide a breakdown of bandwidth used by each individual user which is why Individual user bandwidth consumption is the correct choice.

TCP round trip latency is shown by the dashboard as a core network metric and it helps identify latency between clients and Microsoft endpoints.

DNS query resolution time is included because DNS resolution delays can impact Microsoft 365 responsiveness and the insights surface DNS timing to aid troubleshooting.

Exchange Online connection health score is reported as a service specific health metric so administrators can see the health of Exchange Online connections from monitored locations.

When you see a question about dashboards decide whether the metric is aggregated service telemetry or per user data. Dashboards like Network connectivity insights show service and network level metrics not individual user bandwidth so pick the option that describes per user detail.

The correct answer is FALSE.

Data Loss Prevention policies in Microsoft Purview are not limited to Exchange Online SharePoint Online and OneDrive for Business and they can also protect sensitive information in Teams conversations and chats Office desktop applications and on premises file servers by using cloud connectors endpoint DLP and the DLP scanner or hybrid connectors.

Endpoint DLP integrates with Microsoft Defender for Endpoint to enforce policies on devices and the DLP scanner can discover and apply protections to files on on premises file shares and to SharePoint Server instances that are connected to a hybrid deployment.

The option TRUE is incorrect because it claims that DLP is restricted only to Exchange Online SharePoint Online and OneDrive for Business and that is not accurate since Microsoft provides additional connectors tools and endpoint capabilities to cover Teams Office apps and on premises data.

When you see questions about coverage look for mentions of connectors scanners or endpoints and remember that Microsoft Purview DLP includes cloud connectors endpoint DLP and an on premises scanner so answers that state strict limits are often wrong. Focus on breadth of coverage.

Contoso Identity Conditional Access can evaluate the IP address or network location when making policy decisions and Administrators can create policies in Contoso Identity Conditional Access that require multifactor authentication for users assigned to administrative roles are correct.

Conditional Access evaluates signals about the sign in request such as IP address and named locations and uses those signals when making policy decisions. This allows administrators to block access or require additional controls when requests come from risky or unexpected networks.

Administrators can create policies that target privileged roles and require multifactor authentication to reduce the risk of compromise. Requiring MFA for administrative role accounts is a common Conditional Access use case to protect privileged access.

Contoso Identity Conditional Access policies are applied before the initial sign in factor completes is incorrect because Conditional Access policies evaluate as part of the sign in flow after primary authentication signals are processed and then enforce controls such as requiring MFA or blocking access. Policies do not run before the initial authentication factor completes.

The Conditional Access capability is included in the free edition of Contoso Identity is incorrect because Conditional Access is an advanced capability that requires paid licensing in most identity providers. For example Azure Active Directory requires Premium licensing for Conditional Access features.

When you see Conditional Access questions focus on the signals it evaluates such as IP and device state and remember that advanced controls like role based MFA enforcement typically require premium licensing.

The correct answer is Safe Links routes the clicked URL to a secured verification server that checks it against a blocklist and displays a warning when it is malicious.

Safe Links rewrites URLs in messages so that when a user clicks the link the request goes to a Microsoft verification service. The service performs time of click checks against blocklists and other signals. If the URL is malicious the user is shown a warning or blocked and if it is safe the user is redirected to the original site.

Cloud Armor inspects and filters the link traffic at the edge is incorrect because Cloud Armor is a Google Cloud service that protects application traffic at the network edge and it does not perform email link rewriting or time of click malicious URL analysis.

The email is removed from the recipient’s inbox immediately is incorrect because Safe Links does not delete messages when a link is clicked. The feature focuses on inspecting the clicked URL and warning or blocking access rather than removing the mail from the mailbox.

The recipient is taken directly to the linked site without any inspection is incorrect because Safe Links prevents direct navigation by rewriting the link and routing the click through its verification service for inspection before allowing a redirect to the target.

Focus on answers that describe time-of-click URL rewriting and verification when the question asks how link protection works. Exclude options that describe edge filtering or immediate message deletion.

Assign two or more owners to the group is the recommended practice to ensure group administration coverage when one person is unavailable.

Assigning two or more owners gives multiple named administrators who can manage membership and settings and it preserves audit trails and individual accountability. This approach avoids a single point of failure and keeps changes attributable to specific users which simplifies troubleshooting and compliance.

It is straightforward to implement in Cloud Identity or Workspace and it follows access management best practices by keeping human administrators on their own accounts rather than sharing credentials.

Use Cloud Identity group roles is not a complete answer because roles exist but the question asks how to ensure coverage. The practical solution is to assign multiple owners rather than relying on a generic mention of roles.

Create a shared service account for managers to use is incorrect because service accounts are intended for applications and not for shared human use. Sharing credentials reduces auditability and violates principles of least privilege and individual accountability.

Grant one owner and configure a delegated access account is also incorrect because a single owner creates a single point of failure and delegated access can be harder to manage and audit. Assigning multiple owners provides clearer redundancy and accountability.

Choose answers that preserve individual accountability and provide redundant human administrators rather than shared credentials.

The correct option is A user signs in from IP 192.168.80.100.

A user signs in from IP 192.168.80.100 is not in the tenant trusted range 192.168.10.0/24 and it is not in either named recognized location, LocationAlpha 192.168.30.0/24 or LocationBeta 192.168.60.0/24. Because this IP is unrecognized by the tenant configuration the conditional access policy evaluation treats the sign in as coming from an external location and the policy requires multi factor authentication for that access.

A user signs in from IP 192.168.60.22 is inside LocationBeta 192.168.60.0/24 which is defined as a recognized named location. In this scenario recognized named locations are not subject to the same MFA enforcement as unrecognized external IPs so this sign in does not require additional MFA.

A user signs in from IP 192.168.10.45 falls inside the tenant trusted IP range 192.168.10.0/24. Trusted IP ranges are treated as internal and are exempt from the external MFA requirement in this configuration so the user would not be prompted for MFA.

A user signs in from IP 192.168.30.5 is inside LocationAlpha 192.168.30.0/24 which is a named recognized location. Access from that recognized location is not evaluated as external in the given policy and therefore it does not trigger the MFA requirement.

When you see location based conditional access map each candidate IP to the trusted IP range and to any named recognized locations first and then decide whether the policy applies or is bypassed.

The correct option is Solutions tab.

Solutions tab breaks down the compliance score so you can see the ratio of points earned to points available for each solution. It surfaces per solution scores and lets you compare how each solution contributes to the overall compliance score which is why it directly answers the question about points earned versus points available.

Remediation tasks lists actions and guidance to remediate control deficiencies and does not present the score ratio by solution.

Assessment view provides details about assessments and control status and it focuses on control evidence and assessment details rather than a per solution points breakdown.

Notification rules is used to configure alerts and notifications for changes in compliance status and it does not show the ratio of points earned to points available by solution.

When a question asks about a per solution breakdown look for the tab name that includes the word Solutions since that is where per solution scores and point ratios are shown.

Configuration Analyzer is the correct option.

Configuration Analyzer is built to run automated configuration assessments across Microsoft 365 settings and it compares tenant configurations against recommended best practices. It provides targeted findings and actionable remediation steps which makes it efficient for evaluating Safe Links policies and related protection settings.

Configuration Analyzer surfaces misconfigurations and gives guidance to bring policies in line with Contoso’s recommended settings and that is exactly what an efficient assessment requires.

Microsoft Defender portal is incorrect because the portal is the administrative interface for managing policies and alerts and it does not automatically run the focused configuration assessment and recommendations that Configuration Analyzer provides.

Secure Score is incorrect because Secure Score reports overall security posture and suggested improvement actions rather than performing a detailed, targeted analysis of Safe Links configuration.

Compliance Manager is incorrect because it focuses on regulatory compliance controls and assessments and it does not perform the configuration checks of Safe Links policies that Configuration Analyzer performs.

When a question asks for an automated, targeted configuration assessment choose a tool that scans tenant settings such as Configuration Analyzer rather than broad posture or compliance solutions.

Save the spreadsheet as a CSV and use the Microsoft 365 admin center bulk user import is correct.

bulk user import in the Microsoft 365 admin center is designed for this scenario because it allows an administrator to upload a CSV exported from Excel and create many cloud only users in one operation. This method requires no custom scripting and is the fastest way to add a couple of hundred accounts while also letting you assign licenses and usage locations during the import.

Install Azure AD Connect on a server and enable directory synchronization is incorrect because Azure AD Connect is intended to synchronize an on premises Active Directory with Entra ID and it requires an existing on premises directory and ongoing infrastructure. It is not a quick one time solution for importing a spreadsheet of users into a cloud only tenant.

Use PowerShell to read the Excel file and script the creation of users in Entra ID is not the best choice for speed and simplicity because scripting takes more time and testing and is more error prone for administrators who need a straightforward bulk upload. PowerShell can accomplish the task but it is heavier work for a simple import.

Run Azure CLI scripts to parse the spreadsheet and provision user accounts in Entra ID is also not the most efficient option because the Azure CLI does not natively parse Excel files and this approach requires custom parsing and scripting. That level of automation is useful for repeatable workflows but it is overkill for a one time, quick import.

For one time or ad hoc bulk additions convert Excel to CSV and use the Microsoft 365 admin center bulk import to save time and avoid writing or testing scripts.

The correct option is Deploy an Application Proxy connector.

The Deploy an Application Proxy connector option refers to Microsoft Entra ID Application Proxy which lets users sign in with their Entra credentials to access internal web applications. The Deploy an Application Proxy connector installs a lightweight connector on premises that makes an outbound connection to the Microsoft cloud so you do not need to open inbound firewall ports. Entra ID then performs pre authentication and you can apply conditional access and single sign on to the published app.

The Deploy an Application Proxy connector approach is specifically designed to publish internal web apps to remote users while keeping authentication and access control in Entra ID and while minimizing changes to your network perimeter.

The Azure Application Gateway is a layer seven load balancer and web application firewall for Azure hosted resources. It does not provide the on premises connector or Entra pre authentication that is required to publish internal apps for external access.

The Register an enterprise application in Entra ID option creates an app object and lets you configure single sign on and permissions. Registering an app by itself does not publish an on premises web site or install the reverse proxy connector that makes the app reachable from outside the network.

The Install and configure Microsoft Entra Connect tool synchronizes identities and credentials between on premises Active Directory and Entra ID. It does not act as a reverse proxy and it does not publish internal web applications for remote access.

When a question asks about publishing on premises web applications look for the Application Proxy connector as the feature that provides Entra pre authentication and an outbound connector from your network.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is Create sensitivity labels then configure label settings then create a label policy then publish the label policy.

You must create sensitivity labels first because the labels define the classification and any protection or encryption settings that will be applied to documents and email.

Next you configure label settings so the labels behave correctly inside Microsoft Office applications and so client features such as auto labeling or tooltips are enabled.

Then you create a label policy which groups the labels and defines who receives them and how they are assigned.

Publishing the label policy is the final step because publishing distributes the policy and makes the labels appear inside Office apps for the targeted users.

Create a label policy first then create sensitivity labels then configure label settings then publish the label policy is incorrect because a policy cannot reference labels that do not yet exist and you must create labels before you create a policy that includes them.

Create sensitivity labels then configure label settings then publish the label policy then create a label policy is incorrect because publishing applies to an existing policy and you cannot publish a policy before that policy is created.

Configure label settings then create sensitivity labels then publish the label policy then create a label policy is incorrect because label settings are applied to labels so the labels need to exist first and the sequence also attempts to publish before the policy is created which is not valid.

Think about the lifecycle of resources and whether an item must exist before it can be configured or published. Remember that labels must be created before you build and publish a policy.

The correct option is Ingest Defender telemetry via the Microsoft 365 Defender APIs.

This approach uses the official, programmatic interfaces that expose alerts, incidents, and telemetry in structured form so you can build dependable and scalable ingestion into a centralized logging platform. The APIs support filtering and incremental queries and they can be combined with notification mechanisms to reduce polling and to provide near real time delivery.

Using the APIs lets you authenticate with managed application credentials and follow Microsoft rate limits and best practices. This makes automated, repeatable ingestion easier to maintain than manual or ad hoc methods and it avoids reimplementing features that Microsoft already provides.

Enable periodic manual exports from Microsoft 365 Defender to the log platform is not ideal because manual exports are error prone and do not scale for continuous security analysis. They are slower and require ongoing human intervention or brittle scheduling.

Deploy a custom collector agent on the log server to fetch Defender data is also suboptimal because it duplicates functionality that the APIs provide and it forces you to manage authentication, rate limiting, retries, and updates on your own. An agent can work but it is not the most maintainable or scalable option.

Stream Defender alerts into Google Cloud Pub/Sub using a connectors pipeline is incorrect as stated because there is no native, direct Defender to Pub/Sub connector built into the product. You would still rely on the Defender APIs or intermediary services to export the data, so the best practice is to use the official APIs for ingestion and then forward into Pub/Sub if you need that transport.

For integration questions pick the option that uses official programmatic interfaces when you need reliable and scalable ingestion. Also remember to consider authentication, rate limits, and available notification or delta query features when designing the pipeline.

The correct answers are A legacy distribution list can be migrated to a Microsoft 365 group in the admin center, Security groups can be assigned to control access rights on resources and applications and Creating a Microsoft 365 group also provisions a shared mailbox and a group calendar.

A legacy distribution list can be migrated to a Microsoft 365 group in the admin center is correct because the Microsoft 365 admin center provides tools to convert distribution lists into Microsoft 365 groups while preserving membership and email addresses. That conversion moves the list into the groups framework so members gain the collaboration features that groups provide.

Security groups can be assigned to control access rights on resources and applications is correct because security groups in Azure Active Directory and Microsoft 365 exist to grant permissions and to manage access to resources and applications across the tenant.

Creating a Microsoft 365 group also provisions a shared mailbox and a group calendar is correct because a Microsoft 365 group is a collaboration construct that by default provisions an Exchange mailbox, a shared calendar and other services such as a SharePoint site and Planner for the group’s members.

Every user who accesses a shared mailbox must have an individual Microsoft 365 license is incorrect because shared mailboxes can be used without individual licenses while they remain within Microsofts size and feature limits. Licensing may become necessary if you enable archive or if you convert the shared mailbox to a regular user mailbox so the licensing rule depends on usage rather than mere access.

When a question contrasts group types focus on the resources each type provisions and the intended use case and remember that Microsoft 365 groups include mailbox and calendar functionality while security groups are primarily for access control.

All of the above actions is correct. Daniel can perform each of the listed tasks in Microsoft Entra so he can Invite outside collaborators as guest users with restricted permissions, Create internal staff accounts and assign specific roles or group memberships, and Enable self service password reset for both internal and guest accounts to manage access for employees and external partners.

Microsoft Entra ID supports external collaboration through B2B guest invitations and policy controls so an administrator can invite outside collaborators and restrict their permissions. The service also provides full user provisioning and role and group assignment features for internal staff. Self service password reset is a configurable authentication and recovery feature that can be enabled and scoped to internal users and to guest accounts when appropriate.

Invite outside collaborators as guest users with restricted permissions is marked wrong by itself because choosing that single action ignores the other administrative tasks in the list. The item is a valid capability of Microsoft Entra but it is not the complete answer when all three tasks are required.

Create internal staff accounts and assign specific roles or group memberships is marked wrong on its own because it describes a correct capability but does not cover the external collaborator and self service password reset aspects that are also part of the full administration answer.

Enable self service password reset for both internal and guest accounts is marked wrong as an individual choice because it is a true feature yet it does not include the user creation and guest invitation tasks that make the combined answer correct.

When a question lists multiple capabilities look for an All of the above option and verify that each listed item is supported by the service before selecting it.

The correct option is Any of the listed Information Protection role groups.

This is correct because Microsoft Purview and Microsoft 365 provide a set of Information Protection role groups that are designed to delegate duties for sensitivity labels and related policy management. Adding employees to any of those role groups grants the limited administrative rights needed to create, publish, and manage labels without giving broader tenant wide privileges.

You choose a specific Information Protection role group based on the level of access required. Some groups allow label creation and policy configuration while others focus on monitoring, reporting, or enforcement. The exam answer expects the general choice that covers all valid Information Protection role groups rather than selecting a single named role group.

The option Security Administrators is incorrect because that is a broader security administration role and it is not one of the Information Protection role groups meant specifically for delegating sensitivity label management.

The option Information Protection Analysts is incorrect as a single choice because the question asks which role groups can be used to provide delegated access and the correct response is that any of the listed Information Protection role groups can be used. Selecting this single group is too narrow for the question as written.

The option Information Protection Admins is incorrect for the same reason. That role is one valid Information Protection group, but the exam answer requires acknowledging that any of the listed Information Protection role groups can provide the delegated rights rather than picking only this one.

When an option says Any of the listed it often means the exam is testing whether you recognise a whole category of valid roles rather than a single example. Read the stem carefully and prefer the broader choice when it fits the requirement.

Sign-in risk policy is the correct option.

Sign-in risk policy examines individual authentication events and uses signals and detectors to calculate a risk score for each sign in so you can require additional controls or block access based on that per sign in analysis.

User risk policy is not correct because it assesses the risk that a user account has been compromised across events and behaviors rather than computing a risk score for each individual sign in.

Azure AD Conditional Access policy is not correct because Conditional Access is the enforcement framework that can act on risk signals but it is not the Identity Protection configuration that performs the per sign in risk calculation itself.

MFA registration policy is not correct because that policy forces or guides users to register authentication methods and does not analyze sign in signals to compute a per sign in risk score.

When a question mentions computing a risk score for each authentication event think of Identity Protection and the Sign-in risk policy rather than user level or registration policies.

Update the Azure AD Connect settings to include the affected Organizational Unit in the synchronization scope is correct.

This option fixes the root cause because Azure AD Connect can be configured to include or exclude specific organizational units from synchronization and if the OU that contains those twelve accounts was not selected then those accounts will not be synchronized to Azure AD. Updating the synchronization scope to include the missing OU will allow the connector to pick up those objects and replicate them to Azure AD.

Add a new inbound synchronization rule in Azure AD Connect is incorrect because missing objects due to OU filtering are not resolved by adding inbound rules. Inbound synchronization rules control how attributes are projected into the metaverse and not which AD containers are included in the sync scope.

Edit the existing outbound synchronization rule in Azure AD Connect is incorrect because outbound rules govern how objects and attributes flow from the metaverse to Azure AD and they will not include objects that were never brought into the metaverse because their OU was excluded from synchronization.

Create a new outbound synchronization rule in the Synchronization Rules Editor is incorrect for the same reason. Creating or modifying outbound rules does not change which OUs are synchronized from on premises Active Directory, so it will not recover accounts that were omitted by the synchronization scope.

When users are missing from Azure AD start by checking OU filtering in the Azure AD Connect configuration before changing synchronization rules.

The correct option is Viva Insights add in for Outlook.

The Outlook add in integrates directly with your Outlook calendar and it provides tools to book protected time and plan personal time away, so it is the appropriate feature to schedule personal time off. The add in lets you create calendar events and block focus or quiet time from within Outlook which makes scheduling time away straightforward.

Briefing emails from Viva in Outlook is incorrect because briefing emails provide summaries and suggestions about your day and they do not let you directly schedule calendar time or block personal time away.

Viva Insights app in Teams is incorrect because the Teams app surfaces personal insights and wellbeing recommendations but it does not directly create calendar bookings in the way the Outlook add in does.

Viva Insights dashboard in the Microsoft 365 admin center is incorrect because admin dashboards show organizational level analytics and settings for admins and they are not used by an individual to schedule personal time off.

When a question asks about scheduling time away look for options that mention calendar integration or an add in for Outlook because those features directly create or block calendar events.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

True is correct.

The True option is correct because Information Barrier policies in Microsoft 365 and Teams can be targeted to users that exist in the HarborTech tenant and that includes guest users who are added as Azure AD B2B guest accounts. These policies are created and managed in the Microsoft Purview compliance center and they apply to segments of directory users so guest accounts can be included when you define the segments and rules.

To include guest accounts you must have the guests provisioned in your Azure Active Directory and then include them in the groups or attribute-based segments that the Information Barrier policies use. When the prerequisites and licensing requirements are met the policies will propagate to supported workloads including Microsoft Teams.

The False option is incorrect because it asserts that HarborTech cannot apply Information Barrier policies to guest accounts. That blanket statement is wrong when guests exist as directory users and are explicitly included in the policy segments or groups.

When a question mentions guest accounts first check whether the guest is represented in the tenant and whether policies can target directory attributes or groups. Review the Microsoft Purview documentation for information barriers and the supported workloads before answering.

APIs are the correct mechanism that app connectors use from application providers to increase visibility and allow control over the services you connect to.

App connectors call provider APIs to pull activity logs and metadata and to perform management actions so they can offer both visibility and control. APIs expose programmatic endpoints and scopes that a connector can use at scale to query state apply policies and make configuration changes on the connected service.

Webhooks are push notifications that an application can send to report events and they can complement visibility for real time alerts, but webhooks do not by themselves provide the full management and querying capabilities that connectors need. Connectors commonly use webhooks alongside APIs rather than relying on them as the primary mechanism.

Service principals are identities used to authenticate applications to call APIs and they serve as credentials rather than as the mechanism that exposes telemetry or control surfaces. A service principal may be used to obtain access to an application’s APIs but it is not the provider mechanism that delivers visibility or control.

SAML metadata contains configuration used for single sign on and federation and it helps establish trust for authentication flows. It does not provide ongoing access to activity data or management operations so it is not how connectors gain visibility or control over services.

OAuth tokens are authorization credentials issued by an authorization server and they enable access to an application’s interfaces, but they are not the mechanism that exposes service capabilities. OAuth tokens are used to authenticate and authorize calls to an application’s APIs rather than replacing the APIs themselves.

When a question asks about gaining visibility and control think “APIs first” and remember that tokens and identities are supporting elements used to call those APIs.

Yes is correct because enabling Pass-through Authentication with Entra Connect allows users to sign in to both on premises and cloud applications with the same Active Directory password.

Pass-through Authentication works by deploying lightweight agents on premises that validate user credentials against the on premises Active Directory in real time and the cloud does not store the plaintext password. Configuring this in Entra Connect ensures that users who previously had separate local and cloud passwords can use a single password for both environments.

There is an alternative approach called Password Hash Sync that copies a hash of the password to the cloud and it also allows a single password. Pass-through Authentication is different because it validates against the on premises directory on each sign in and it can be preferable when you do not want password hashes in the cloud.

No is incorrect because once Pass-through Authentication is properly enabled and the PTA agents are functioning users do not need separate cloud passwords and the authentication is validated against the on premises Active Directory.

When facing hybrid identity questions confirm which synchronization or authentication method is configured and verify agent health. Check Pass-through Authentication and Password Hash Sync differences and validate that PTA agents can reach the service before answering.

The correct answer is Productivity tab.

The Productivity tab in Viva Insights surfaces aggregated meeting patterns for a team so leaders can see how often meetings are scheduled and how long sessions typically last. This tab provides team level metrics and visualizations that help people operations and managers adjust calendars and meeting policies based on observed behavior.

Collaboration tab is not correct because that area emphasizes how people work together through communication and shared content rather than showing aggregated meeting frequency and duration for a team.

Wellbeing tab is not correct because it highlights indicators related to employee wellbeing and work-life balance rather than detailed team meeting metrics.

Group Insights tab is not correct because Viva Insights uses the Productivity experiences to present aggregated meeting metrics and there is not a primary tab called Group Insights for those team meeting patterns in the current interface.

When the question asks about aggregated team meeting frequency and duration look for the tab that focuses on team productivity metrics. The Productivity tab is the likely place to find those aggregated meeting patterns.

The label identifier remains in each file’s metadata and applications will no longer display the label name is correct.

When Maya deletes a sensitivity label from the Microsoft 365 compliance center the label record is removed from the label catalog but files that were already labeled retain the label identifier in their file metadata. Because the identifier remains and the service no longer hosts the label name applications and viewers cannot resolve that identifier to the friendly label name so the label text will stop appearing in the UI.

Deleting the label does not automatically unprotect or decrypt files and the presence of the label identifier in metadata means the file still shows it was once labeled even though the name is gone. Administrators must take explicit steps to remove protection or to reclassify content if they intend to change access or encryption on already labeled documents.

Deleting the label will cause it to be removed from every document automatically within 48 hours is incorrect because labels are not retroactively stripped from files when you delete the label from the service. The label identifier remains in the file metadata and removal from files requires explicit action or a separate process.

Removing the label will immediately delete any encryption or rights management tied to the label is incorrect because protections applied by a label remain in effect until they are explicitly removed or the protection policy is changed. Deleting the label entry does not instantly remove encryption or rights management from already protected files.

Any user access restrictions that relied on the label will be revoked as soon as the label is deleted is incorrect because access controls enforced by rights management or encryption continue to operate independently of the label object in the compliance center. Deleting the label does not by itself revoke access that is enforced by protection technology.

When you study sensitivity label behavior remember that deleting a label from the service does not remove the metadata in existing files and it does not automatically remove protection. Learn the difference between deleting a label and unprotecting or republishing labels.

The correct option is Leveraging the Threat dashboard to gain broad visibility into global threat activity.

Leveraging the Threat dashboard to gain broad visibility into global threat activity is correct because the dashboard aggregates telemetry from across the service and surfaces campaign level trends and indicators. The Threat dashboard helps investigators link observed phishing to broader campaigns and known actor groups by showing attribution data and related indicators of compromise.

Concentrating on the total number of mail items scanned by the tenant is incorrect because raw scan counts only show volume and do not provide campaign attribution or insights into threat actor types.

Using Attack simulation reports to evaluate user susceptibility to phishing is incorrect because attack simulations measure user behavior and training effectiveness and they do not reveal where real campaigns originate or the likely actor profiles behind them.

Using Threat explorer to investigate individual malware and malicious message details is incorrect because Threat Explorer is focused on hunting and investigating specific messages and artifacts inside your tenant and it is not designed to provide broad global campaign attribution or actor profiling at the same level as the Threat dashboard.

When a question asks about campaign origins or actor types choose features that provide global or campaign level intelligence. Tools like Attack simulation and Threat Explorer are useful, but they are more tenant focused and tactical rather than attribution oriented.

The correct answer is Privileged authentication administrator.

The Privileged authentication administrator role can manage authentication methods and reset multi factor authentication settings for any user including those who hold the Global administrator role. This role includes permissions to clear and reconfigure a user�s MFA registration and to manage authentication method settings for privileged accounts.

Password administrator is incorrect because that role is focused on resetting passwords and unlocking accounts and it does not grant the ability to reset another user�s MFA settings for Global administrators.

Help desk administrator is incorrect because that role has a limited scope and is intended for basic support tasks and non‑privileged password resets and it cannot reset MFA for Global administrators.

User administrator is incorrect because although that role can manage user accounts and many account settings it does not include the privileged authentication permissions required to reset a Global administrator�s MFA settings.

When a question asks who can manage or reset MFA for a Global Admin focus on role scope and choose roles that explicitly include privileged authentication permissions rather than general user or password roles.

The correct answer is Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers.

The organization coordinates the global Domain Name System and is responsible for delegating top level domains and accrediting domain name registrars. It also performs the IANA functions that include managing the DNS root zone and allocating protocol parameters which keeps the name system stable and globally unique.

Internet Engineering Task Force sets technical standards and develops protocols through RFCs. It does not manage domain name allocations or the DNS root zone.

Regional Internet Registries allocate and manage IP address space and autonomous system numbers within specific geographic regions. They do not assign domain names or run the DNS root.

World Wide Web Consortium creates web standards for technologies such as HTML and CSS. It does not administer domain name allocations or coordinate the global DNS.

When you see organization names in questions think about whether they set standards or manage resources. Names that mention assigned names or IANA usually point to the authority for domain names.

The correct answer is Exchange mail and SharePoint sites.

Disabling Exchange mail prevents confidential files from being widely distributed by email and it stops mail based forwarding of attachments that could expose files outside user OneDrive accounts. Disabling SharePoint sites prevents site level sharing and external site access that could allow files stored in the SharePoint service to be exposed, and this helps contain exposure when you keep OneDrive storage active while applying tighter controls.

SharePoint sites and Teams is incorrect because turning off Teams alone does not stop file distribution by email and it leaves Exchange mail enabled which can still expose files from OneDrive. Teams files also rely on SharePoint so removing Teams does not address mail based sharing.

Microsoft Purview and Teams is incorrect because Microsoft Purview is a compliance platform and not typically switched off to block file exposure, and disabling Purview would remove detection and protection capabilities rather than prevent sharing. Disabling Teams does not stop Exchange mail or SharePoint site level sharing which are common paths for OneDrive file exposure.

Exchange mail and Teams is incorrect because although disabling Exchange reduces email based leaks, leaving SharePoint sites enabled still allows site level sharing and access that can expose OneDrive files. Teams alone does not replace the need to control SharePoint level sharing.

When a question asks which services to disable to stop files leaking from OneDrive think about services that actually move files off OneDrive such as Exchange mail and site level sharing in SharePoint. Check sharing and DLP settings before toggling whole services off.

The correct answer is Microsoft Defender for Office 365.

Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is specifically built to detect and stop sophisticated email based attacks such as phishing, spear phishing, and credential harvesting. It includes anti phishing policies, impersonation detection, Safe Links, Safe Attachments, and automated investigation and response capabilities that go beyond basic spam and malware filtering.

Microsoft Defender for Identity focuses on identity based threats in on premises and hybrid environments and it monitors lateral movement and suspicious authentications rather than providing email anti phishing protections.

Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention helps prevent accidental or intentional leakage of sensitive information by applying policies to content and data flows and it does not specialize in detecting phishing or credential theft campaigns.

Exchange Online Protection provides baseline spam and malware filtering for email but it is not designed to provide the advanced anti phishing, link rewriting, and attachment sandboxing features that Defender for Office 365 provides.

When a question describes targeted email threats such as credential harvesting or spear phishing look for features like anti phishing, safe links, or safe attachments and choose the advanced email protection service.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is Sender Policy Framework (SPF).

The Sender Policy Framework (SPF) allows a domain owner to publish a list of authorized sending IP addresses in DNS and lets receiving mail servers verify that the message envelope comes from an approved sender. This prevents simple domain spoofing and reduces spam by allowing receivers to reject or flag mail that does not originate from the declared senders. The record is implemented as a DNS TXT record and is widely used in Microsoft 365 deployments to block forged senders.

The DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) option is not selected because DKIM provides cryptographic signatures that verify message integrity and the authorized domain, but it does not publish allowed sending IP addresses in DNS by itself. DKIM is complementary to SPF and is often deployed together with DMARC for stronger protection.

The Microsoft Defender option is incorrect because that name refers to a suite of security products and services rather than an email authentication protocol. Defender can provide filtering and threat protection but it does not function as an SPF style DNS record that declares authorized senders.

The Insider Risk Management option is incorrect because it is a compliance and risk investigation feature in Microsoft 365 and it is unrelated to email authentication or publishing authorized sending sources.

When asked about preventing domain spoofing look for options that mention publishing authorized senders in DNS such as SPF. Remember that DKIM and DMARC are complementary and often appear together on exam questions.

Safe Attachments policy must be created first when using PowerShell to add a Safe Attachments rule for an organization.

The Safe Attachments policy is the resource that defines how attachments are scanned and what actions are taken when a threat is detected. A rule references and applies that policy to messages so you must have the policy in place before you create or bind the rule in PowerShell.

Safe Attachments condition is not the right choice because conditions are pieces of rule logic that you specify when building the rule. Conditions are configured as part of the rule and they do not exist independently before the policy and rule are created.

Safe Links policy is a separate protection feature that focuses on URLs and it does not provide the attachment scanning configuration that Safe Attachments policies provide. Creating a Safe Links policy will not satisfy the requirement for a Safe Attachments rule.

Safe Attachments exception is not created first because exceptions are adjustments to existing policies or rules. You add exceptions after the main policy or rule exists so an exception cannot be the initial object you create.

When scripting with PowerShell create the policy first and then create or bind the rule that references it. Check the cmdlet documentation for required parameters and test changes in a non production tenant.

The correct answer is Attack simulation training. This feature is specifically intended to evaluate employees’ reactions to simulated phishing messages and to measure how users respond over time.

Attack simulation training enables administrators to create or use predefined phishing scenarios and deliver them to targeted groups. The tool records outcomes such as who clicked links who submitted credentials and who completed follow up training so security teams can identify risk and track improvement.

Threat analytics is incorrect because it provides insights into active threats trends and campaign context rather than running simulations to test user behavior.

Automated investigation and response is incorrect because it focuses on automating detection investigation and remediation tasks for alerts and incidents and does not perform phishing simulations or user training.

Safe Links policy is incorrect because it protects users by scanning and rewriting URLs and blocking malicious links in messages and does not evaluate employee reactions to simulated phishing.

When a question asks about measuring user behavior choose options that mention simulation or training rather than choices about threat analysis or automated remediation.

The correct option is Ensure Azure Active Directory Multi Factor Authentication is enabled and push notifications are permitted as a verification method.

Passwordless phone sign in relies on the Microsoft Authenticator app to deliver push notifications that prove possession of a registered device and to approve sign ins without a password. Enabling Multi Factor Authentication and allowing push notifications makes sure the authentication flow can validate the user and complete a passwordless sign in.

Require administrators to deploy FIDO2 security keys for every user is incorrect because FIDO2 security keys are an alternative passwordless method and they are not required for phone sign in with the Microsoft Authenticator app.

Microsoft Authenticator must be installed only on Windows devices is incorrect because the Microsoft Authenticator app is supported on mobile platforms such as iOS and Android and it is not limited to Windows devices.

Users must keep a fixed password for fallback access is incorrect because the goal of passwordless phone sign in is to reduce reliance on passwords and there are other recovery or fallback options rather than requiring a permanent password.

Read the question for the specific passwordless method and then verify the required authentication methods and app registration steps in the documentation.

Individual employee productivity scores is the correct answer because the Microsoft 365 usage analytics dashboard provides aggregated adoption and usage metrics and it does not surface per person productivity scores.

Microsoft 365 usage analytics focuses on tenant and group level signals such as meeting behavior, application adoption, and storage trends. It is intended to help leadership understand overall usage patterns and adoption rather than to rank or score individual employees, and delivering individual productivity scores would introduce significant privacy and interpretation concerns.

Meeting length averages for Teams is incorrect because Teams meeting and collaboration metrics, including average meeting duration, are available through the Teams reports and the Microsoft 365 usage analytics dashboards.

Active user counts per application is incorrect because usage analytics explicitly reports active user counts and usage trends for individual applications so you can track adoption across the tenant.

Trends in tenant file storage consumption is incorrect because storage consumption and trends for services like SharePoint and OneDrive are shown in the usage and reports dashboards at the tenant level and over time.

When a choice mentions individual user scores prefer the aggregated answer because Microsoft 365 usage analytics reports are designed to show tenant and group level usage rather than per person productivity metrics.

The correct answer is Cloud Discovery can automatically add previously unknown applications to its catalog.

Cloud Discovery can automatically add previously unknown applications to its catalog is not accurate because most cloud discovery systems flag unknown or uncatalogued applications for administrator review rather than adding them automatically to the official catalog. Cloud Discovery will typically surface unknown apps with metadata and allow an admin to validate or classify them before they become part of the managed catalog.

Logs undergo a sequence of steps that include upload, parsing, analysis, and report creation is not the right choice because that description matches how Cloud Discovery workflows operate. The service ingests logs or collects traffic, parses events, analyzes them to identify applications and usage, and then produces reports for review.

Continuous reporting can be enabled by linking the service to an endpoint protection solution is not the right choice because integrating with endpoint telemetry or agents is a common way to enable ongoing discovery and near real time reporting rather than relying solely on periodic log uploads.

Cloud Discovery evaluates network traffic logs against a repository of more than 38,000 cloud applications is not the right choice because Cloud Discovery uses a large application catalog to map traffic to known cloud services and many vendors maintain catalogs that contain tens of thousands of applications to improve identification accuracy.

When a question asks which statement is not accurate focus on whether a behavior is truly automatic or if it requires administrator action and validation.

The correct option is Custom installation mode.

Choose Custom installation mode when you need to deploy Azure AD Connect across several Active Directory forests because it lets you add and configure each forest individually and supply separate credentials for each. The custom mode also lets you choose which synchronization features to enable and to configure OU and attribute filtering which are required for complex, multi forest topologies.

Staged deployment is not the right choice because staged deployment describes running a secondary Azure AD Connect server in staging mode for validation or failover and it does not replace the need to use the custom installer to configure multiple forests.

Either Express or Custom Settings is incorrect because the express path cannot handle complex multi forest environments and the question asks for the installation mode you should select in a multi forest scenario which is the custom mode.

Express Settings is incorrect because express settings are intended for simple, single forest deployments and they apply default configuration that does not allow you to add additional Active Directory forests or customize synchronization settings during installation.

When a question mentions multiple Active Directory forests prefer the custom installation mode so you can provide per forest credentials and configure filtering and features during setup.

The correct option is eDiscovery preservation hold.

eDiscovery preservation hold places a legal hold on mailboxes, SharePoint sites, OneDrive accounts, or on the results of a targeted search and prevents relevant content from being permanently deleted or altered while the hold is active. It is designed for litigation and compliance scenarios and it lets you preserve content for specific custodians or queries so only the targeted items are retained for the investigation.

Data loss prevention policies are focused on preventing sensitive data from leaving the organization and enforcing protection actions. They do not act as a legal hold and they do not guarantee that targeted content cannot be altered or removed for the purposes of litigation.

Retention labels and retention policies control how long content is kept and when it is deleted across mailboxes and sites, and they apply lifecycle rules organization wide or by location. They are not the same as a targeted legal preservation action and they lack the case and custodian controls provided by an eDiscovery preservation hold.

Organization retention settings set broad default retention behavior for a tenant and they are not designed to serve as targeted litigation holds. They are less precise and they do not provide the same legal hold management and preservation guarantees that eDiscovery holds provide.

When a question mentions litigation or the need to preserve content for specific custodians, think eDiscovery preservation hold because it is the mechanism built for targeted legal preservation.

The correct option is Remove-Mailbox.

Remove-Mailbox is the Exchange Online PowerShell cmdlet that removes an Exchange mailbox object. You run this cmdlet against Exchange Online with the Exchange Online PowerShell module and an account that has the required administrative role in order to delete or disable a mailbox in the tenant.

Remove-TeamUser is incorrect because that cmdlet removes a user from a Microsoft Teams team and it does not affect Exchange or mailboxes.

Remove-MailboxPermission is incorrect because that cmdlet changes or removes access rights such as FullAccess or SendAs on a mailbox and it does not delete the mailbox itself.

Remove-MsolUser is incorrect because that cmdlet comes from the MSOnline module and is used to remove an Azure Active Directory user account. It is not the Exchange cmdlet for mailbox removal and the MSOnline module is deprecated so it is less likely to be the focus of newer exams.

When a question asks specifically about removing an Exchange mailbox look for the Exchange PowerShell cmdlet and verify you have the correct administration role. Also watch for deprecated modules like MSOnline in newer exam content.

The correct answer is Azure Active Directory Premium P1.

Azure Active Directory Premium P1 is the minimum Azure AD license that provides the Conditional Access feature set so you must have that tier to create and enforce Conditional Access policies. It includes the controls you need for policy conditions and access enforcement.

Azure Active Directory Premium P2 is not the required answer because it is a higher tier that also contains Conditional Access along with additional identity protection and governance features. It would work but it is not the minimum license required.

Office 365 Enterprise E3 is not sufficient on its own because that plan does not automatically include Azure AD Premium P1. Conditional Access requires the Azure AD premium features which must be added to the tenant.

Azure Active Directory Free is not correct because the free tier does not include Conditional Access capabilities and therefore cannot be used to configure Conditional Access policies.

Before answering check whether the feature is included in the Azure AD premium editions. Conditional Access requires at minimum Azure AD Premium P1 so verify the tenant licensing rather than assuming Office 365 plans include it.

It detaches the file from the message and uploads it to cloud analysis where it is opened in a virtual sandbox to observe suspicious behavior is correct.

This approach removes the attachment from the original message and sends it to a cloud based detonation sandbox where the file is executed in an isolated virtual environment and monitored for malicious behavior. If the analysis observes harmful activity the system blocks the attachment and prevents delivery, and if the file appears benign it is allowed through. This behavior based analysis and cloud detonation model is what distinguishes the feature from simple signature based scanning.

It scans the attachment only with signature based antivirus engines is incorrect because signature only scanning cannot reliably detect previously unknown or obfuscated threats and the Safe Attachments capability uses dynamic analysis in a sandbox rather than relying solely on signatures.

It deletes the attachment immediately without delivering the message is incorrect because the service does not arbitrarily delete attachments. The file is analyzed and only blocked or removed if it is determined to be malicious after inspection.

It delivers the attachment straight to the recipient’s mailbox with no additional checks is incorrect because the feature is intended to inspect attachments before final delivery and not to bypass analysis entirely.

When you see questions about attachment protection look for words like sandbox or detonation and eliminate answers that say only signature scanning or no analysis. Focus on whether the feature observes runtime behavior.

The correct answer is Rename existing DLP rules to match the new naming convention.

This action is not typically part of the policy design process because design work is focused on defining what to detect how to protect it and how alerts and remediation should work. Renaming rules is an administrative or migration activity that may occur after policies are created approved and deployed.

Decide whether to start from a built in policy template or to create a custom policy is part of the design process because choosing a template or building custom rules determines the detection approach and the baseline controls to use.

Document the detailed configuration for each policy and review the settings with stakeholders is also part of the design process because documenting configurations and reviewing them with stakeholders ensures the policies meet business requirements and compliance obligations.

Review the official Data Loss Prevention guidance and policy reference materials is part of the design workflow because official guidance provides best practices patterns and examples that inform accurate and effective policy configuration.

When you answer think about whether the task changes controls or outcomes or whether it is a cosmetic housekeeping step. Tasks that are purely operational or cosmetic are less likely to be part of policy design.

The correct answer is Mail settings page.

You configure mailbox forwarding from the Mail settings page in the Microsoft 365 admin portal. Administrators select the user in Active users and then open the mail settings to enable forwarding or to add a forwarding address because mailbox delivery and forwarding options are managed there.

Licenses and Apps page is used to assign product licenses and manage application access and it does not contain mailbox forwarding options.

Devices page focuses on device management and mobile device policies and it does not provide controls for forwarding a user’s email.

Account page shows account profile and sign in settings for a user and it does not include mailbox delivery or forwarding configuration.

When a question asks where to change mailbox forwarding think of mail properties in the user settings. Select the user from Active users and open the Mail settings area to find forwarding quickly.

All exam questions are from my MS-102 Udemy Course and certificationexams.pro

The correct options are Customize attribute mappings between on-premises accounts and cloud directory objects, Add scoping filters to synchronize selected organizational units and groups, and Run on-demand provisioning tests by applying changes to a single account.

Customize attribute mappings between on-premises accounts and cloud directory objects is supported because provisioning solutions let administrators map which on-premises attributes populate which cloud attributes. This capability lets you rename attributes, transform values, and supply constants or default values so cloud accounts match your directory schema and business rules.

Add scoping filters to synchronize selected organizational units and groups is supported because administrators commonly need to limit which objects are provisioned. Scoping filters or selection rules let you target specific OUs or group memberships so only the intended user and group objects are synchronized to the cloud directory.

Run on-demand provisioning tests by applying changes to a single account is supported because most cloud sync tools provide a way to preview or test provisioning with a single account before broadly applying changes. This helps validate mapping and scoping rules and reduces the risk of unintended updates.

Automatically repair all synchronization errors without administrator intervention is incorrect because provisioning systems can report, retry, and sometimes suggest fixes for errors but they do not safely resolve every type of synchronization error automatically. Many errors require administrator review and remediation to ensure data integrity and to avoid unintended consequences.

When answering provisioning questions look for features that mention attribute mappings, scoping or filtering, and testing or preview. Those keywords often point to supported capabilities and help you rule out answers that promise full automatic error correction.

Microsoft 365 E5 is correct because it includes the advanced Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention capabilities required to create and manage custom sensitive information types.

Custom sensitive information types are an advanced compliance feature in Microsoft Purview and they require an E5 level license or an equivalent compliance add-on. The E5 subscription provides the necessary DLP and sensitive information type tooling so administrators can author, test, and deploy custom pattern matches and classifiers across Microsoft 365.

Microsoft 365 E3 is not sufficient because it offers basic DLP and information protection features but does not include the advanced Purview capabilities for creating custom sensitive information types.

Microsoft 365 Business Premium targets small and medium businesses and does not include the advanced compliance and DLP tooling required to define custom sensitive information types.

Office 365 E1 is an entry level plan that lacks the advanced DLP and Purview compliance features needed to create custom sensitive information types.

When a question asks about advanced compliance or custom data classification features remember that E5 level subscriptions or equivalent compliance add-ons are usually required.

The correct options are Simulate the policy and display policy tips to users, Keep the policy disabled, Enable the policy immediately and Run the policy in monitoring only mode.

Simulate the policy and display policy tips to users runs the DLP logic without enforcing blocks and it surfaces policy tips in supported apps so users see guidance while incidents are recorded for review.

Keep the policy disabled leaves the policy configured but inactive so it does not evaluate or record activity until you enable it and this is useful when you are preparing rules before rollout.

Enable the policy immediately turns on enforcement so the policy will actively apply actions such as blocking, encrypting, or protecting content according to the policy rules and conditions.

Run the policy in monitoring only mode evaluates content and generates alerts and reports without notifying users or enforcing actions so you can assess impact and tune rules before moving to enforcement.

When you see rollout state options think about whether the policy will record only, advise users, be inactive, or actively enforce rules and choose states that match those behaviors.

The correct answers are Open the Microsoft 365 admin mobile application to view recent notifications and alerts and Inspect the Service health overview in the Microsoft 365 admin center.

Open the Microsoft 365 admin mobile application to view recent notifications and alerts is correct because the Microsoft 365 admin mobile app surfaces recent notifications and alerts and it can show Message center posts and service health notifications so administrators can quickly see recent changes while away from the console.

Inspect the Service health overview in the Microsoft 365 admin center is correct because the Service health overview provides the current status of services and a history of incidents and advisories so you can identify recent updates and outages that affected tenant services.

Check the Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center for communications about service changes is not selected here because the Message center is primarily used for planned communications and change notifications to administrators and it may not always reflect live incident status in the same way the Service health dashboard does.

Review the Security and Compliance center dashboard is not correct because that area focuses on security and compliance controls rather than general service change and health notifications. Also the classic Security and Compliance Center experience is being consolidated into the Microsoft Purview compliance portal which makes it less likely to be the primary place to check for service-wide status on newer exams.

When a question asks about recent changes or updates focus on tools that display live status and notifications such as the Microsoft 365 admin mobile app and the Service health dashboard rather than portals that focus on policy or scheduled communications.

Clear and reissue the user’s MFA enrollment is the correct immediate action to take.

This action removes the lost device from the user’s registered authenticators and allows the administrator to require the user to register a new phone or authenticator app while keeping multi factor authentication enforced. It restores the user’s ability to receive codes or use a new authenticator without ever disabling the protection that the security policy requires.

Enable self service password reset is incorrect because allowing password reset helps with forgotten passwords but it does not replace or reconfigure the second factor. The user still cannot receive SMS codes from the lost device and self service password reset will not automatically re-enroll their MFA.

Reset the user’s account password is incorrect because changing the password does not change the registered MFA devices. Resetting the password may not let the user complete sign in when a second factor is required and the device is gone.

Turn off multi factor authentication for the user is incorrect because the security policy forbids disabling MFA and removing the factor would eliminate the intended protection. It is not necessary when you can clear and reissue the enrollment so the user can re-enroll securely.

When a user loses an MFA device choose an option that preserves enforcement and lets the user re-register authenticators or reset their MFA registration rather than disabling MFA. Look for answers that restore access while keeping security controls in place.