MS-900 Microsoft 365 Fundamentals Practice Exams

The correct option is Automated investigation and response engine.

The Automated investigation and response engine in Microsoft Defender for Office 365 Plan 2 automatically investigates suspicious messages by correlating alerts and email signals and it can take remediation actions such as deleting messages, moving them to quarantine, revoking delivered messages, and blocking malicious senders. This feature uses built in playbooks to reduce manual triage and to speed up response for security operations teams.

Secure presets and policies are templates and policy configurations that help prevent or reduce exposure to threats but they do not perform automated investigations or orchestrated remediation of individual incidents.

Security reports and dashboards provide visibility into security trends and alerts and they help analysts monitor and prioritize work but they do not themselves run investigations or take automated response actions.

Threat Explorer and hunting are interactive tools for manual investigation and threat hunting that allow analysts to query email telemetry and trace campaigns but they require human driven actions and do not perform automatic remediation.

When a question mentions automated investigation and remediation look for features whose name or description explicitly includes both investigation and response as part of their capability.

Private cloud is correct because it provides the highest security and administrative control while requiring the greatest upfront capital investment.

Private cloud deployments dedicate infrastructure to a single organization so administrators can enforce strict configuration settings and access controls and meet demanding compliance requirements. Building or dedicating hardware and implementing the management tooling and staffing needed for a private cloud leads to high initial capital expenditures even if some operational costs are lower later on.

On premises is incorrect because the phrase describes the physical location and ownership of hardware rather than a specific cloud deployment model. On premises systems can require large capital investment but they are not necessarily implemented as a cloud model with the management and automation characteristics that define a private cloud.

Public cloud is incorrect because public cloud services share multi tenant infrastructure and shift most capital costs to the provider which lowers upfront investment for customers. Public clouds trade some administrative control for scalability and lower initial cost even though they can still provide strong security features.

When a question contrasts security and administrative control with cost think about whether the environment is dedicated to a single tenant. Private models typically indicate more control and higher upfront capital requirements.

The correct option is Focus plans.

Focus plans is a feature in Microsoft Viva Insights that lets individuals block recurring focus time each workday and automatically set presence and quiet notifications during those sessions. It supports scheduling protected blocks such as 90 minutes and it can silence Microsoft Teams chats by setting Do not disturb and routing notifications so the staff can work on top priority tasks without interruptions.

Digests is incorrect because digests provide summary notifications or highlights rather than scheduling protected focus time or muting Teams chats.

Viva Connections is incorrect because Connections delivers an intranet and employee experience dashboard rather than personal productivity features that schedule focus sessions or silence chat notifications.

Insights add-ins is incorrect because add-ins surface insights and suggestions inside apps such as Outlook but they do not create recurring focus plans that automatically set Teams to quiet during blocked time.

Work patterns is incorrect because work patterns are analytical reports about collaboration and time use for managers and admins rather than a tool for individuals to reserve uninterrupted focus time and silence Teams messages.

When you see a question about blocking time and silencing Teams look for Viva Insights features that manage personal productivity. Focus on terms like focus time or Do not disturb to identify the correct feature.

The correct options are Orchestrating security operations with automated playbooks, Providing enriched incident summaries with contextual details for triage, and Collecting telemetry at cloud scale from diverse sources.

Collecting telemetry at cloud scale from diverse sources is a fundamental capability of Microsoft Sentinel because it ingests logs and events from Azure services, on premises systems, network and endpoint solutions, and third party providers so security teams can run analytics and threat hunting across large datasets.

Providing enriched incident summaries with contextual details for triage is supported since Sentinel correlates related alerts into incidents and surfaces contextual entities, bookmarks, and investigation graphs to help analysts prioritize and investigate more quickly.

Orchestrating security operations with automated playbooks is available through integration with Logic Apps so you can automate response actions like blocking malicious actors, sending notifications, or creating tickets to scale SOAR workflows.

Real time packet capture is not a primary feature of Microsoft Sentinel. Packet capture is typically performed by network capture appliances or specialized tools and while Sentinel can ingest network telemetry and logs it does not function as a raw packet capture appliance.

Focus on action words such as ingest, enrich, and orchestrate when attributing capabilities to Microsoft Sentinel. Pay attention to terms like packet capture as they often indicate specialized network tools rather than a cloud SIEM.

The correct answer is Full USL.

The Full USL is intended for customers who have not previously purchased Microsoft products and it provides a complete, per user subscription that includes all product capabilities. For a first time Microsoft 365 deployment this option supplies the full feature set without requiring any existing on prem licenses or Software Assurance and it is the straightforward way to keep licensing costs predictable while delivering the full product.

Step Up USL is incorrect because step up licenses are used to upgrade an existing lower tier subscription to a higher tier and they assume you already have a qualifying base subscription. They are not meant for customers with no prior Microsoft licensing.

Add-on USL is incorrect because add on subscriptions require an underlying qualifying base license and they only provide additional features on top of that base. An add on cannot serve as the standalone license for a customer that has not implemented any Microsoft products.

From SA USL is incorrect because the From SA path is a conversion benefit for customers who already hold on prem licenses covered by Software Assurance. It provides discounted transition pricing but it is not available to organizations that have no existing Microsoft licenses or Software Assurance coverage.

When you see licensing questions first determine whether the customer already has qualifying licenses or Software Assurance. If they do not then choose the Full subscription option because add ons and From SA conversions require existing licenses.

The correct options are Product, Cloud deployment, and Platform.

The Product filter lets you narrow roadmap entries to features that apply to a specific Microsoft 365 product so you can focus on items that matter to the product you manage.

The Cloud deployment filter allows you to limit entries by deployment environment so you only see features relevant to the cloud model your organization uses.

The Platform filter narrows entries to the target platform such as web, mobile, or desktop which helps you find items that affect particular client experiences.

The option Release status is incorrect because the roadmap does not present a filter under that exact name. Item states are shown in the roadmap entries, but the filtering controls use the specific labels like the ones above rather than a filter called Release status.

When you answer filter questions look for the exact filter labels used on the product page and use the live roadmap to confirm available filters.

Secure Score provides a unified dashboard in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal to assess and raise the security posture of Microsoft 365 identities, applications, and devices.

Secure Score measures the current security posture across Microsoft 365 services and assigns a numeric score while listing improvement actions and their estimated impact so administrators can prioritize and implement recommendations to raise their security posture.

Threat Intelligence focuses on collecting and analyzing threat data and indicators to support investigations and detection and it does not provide the single aggregated posture score and improvement action dashboard.

Advanced hunting is an investigative query capability for searching raw telemetry across devices and identities and it is not a posture measurement tool with prioritized improvement actions.

Incidents and alerts provide event and security incident management so analysts can triage and respond and they do not offer the consolidated posture scoring and recommended improvement steps that Secure Score provides.

When a question asks which feature gives a unified view to assess and raise security posture look for the term that implies a measurable score and improvement actions, as that points to Secure Score.

Azure RBAC is correct because it is the role based access control system that manages access to Azure resources through the Azure Resource Manager.

Azure RBAC assigns roles to users groups and service principals at subscription resource group and resource scope and it integrates with the Azure Resource Manager to grant fine grained permissions with built in and custom roles.

Azure Active Directory roles are incorrect because they apply to identity and directory level administration such as user and group management and they do not manage access to resource objects through ARM.

Azure Policy is incorrect because it is used to enforce organizational rules and compliance across resources and it evaluates and restricts resource properties rather than granting or assigning access permissions.

When you see a question about who can perform actions on Azure resources think Azure RBAC for permissions through ARM and think Azure AD roles for directory administration and Azure Policy for enforcement of rules.

Can be deployed and serviced with Configuration Manager or Intune is correct.

This choice correctly describes how Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise are managed in organizations because the client apps can be deployed and updated by using on premises Configuration Manager or by using cloud based Intune management.

Includes 1 TB of OneDrive storage per user is incorrect because storage entitlements are provided by the broader Microsoft 365 service and OneDrive licensing rather than being a property of the standalone Apps for enterprise deployment statement.

Enables real time co authoring in Office applications is incorrect as stated because real time co authoring depends on cloud storage and collaboration services such as OneDrive or SharePoint and on service licensing, and it is not solely a description of how the apps are deployed and serviced.

Intune alone is incorrect because that option names a management product rather than describing Contoso 365 Apps for Enterprise itself.

Google Workspace is incorrect because it is a competing productivity suite from Google and it does not describe Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise or how those apps are deployed.

Read each choice for whether it describes deployment and servicing or a separate service feature. Pay attention to management tools such as Configuration Manager and Intune when the question asks about how Microsoft 365 Apps are deployed and updated.

The correct answer is User-assigned managed identity.

User-assigned managed identity is a standalone Azure resource that you create once and then assign to multiple Azure resources. It has its own lifecycle and credentials so you can manage or rotate it independently from the resources that use it.

Service principal is not correct because a service principal is an Azure AD identity object that represents an application or service and it is not the Azure managed identity type that is provisioned and shared the same way as a user assigned managed identity.

System-assigned managed identity is not correct because it is tied to a single Azure resource and is created and deleted with that resource so it cannot be assigned to multiple resources.

When a question asks about creating an identity once and reusing it across resources think of user-assigned managed identities because they are standalone resources with an independent lifecycle.

The correct option is True.

Shared channels in Microsoft Teams allow channel level membership so that people from the same organization and external partners can collaborate in that channel without being added to the entire team. You can add internal users and external collaborators directly to the shared channel and they will have access only to the channel content rather than to all team resources.

False is incorrect because it asserts that shared channels require adding collaborators to the whole team. Shared channels were specifically introduced to enable collaboration across organizations at the channel level without making those users members of the parent team.

When an exam question mentions Teams sharing focus on the feature name and remember that shared channels grant channel level access so external partners do not need to be added to the whole team.

The correct option is Compute Engine VMs.

Compute Engine VMs are Infrastructure as a Service because Google supplies the virtualized hardware and networking while the customer is responsible for installing and maintaining the operating system, applying patches, and running applications. With VMs you choose the OS image and manage the runtime and application stack, which is the hallmark of IaaS.

Cloud SQL is incorrect because it is a managed database service where Google manages the database engine, the operating system, backups, and maintenance so the customer does not manage the OS.

App Engine is incorrect because it is a platform as a service where you deploy code and Google manages the runtime, scaling, and operating system so you do not manage virtual machines or the OS.

When you decide between IaaS and PaaS ask who manages the operating system and runtime. If the customer manages the OS it is likely IaaS. If the provider manages the OS it is likely PaaS or a fully managed service.

Users can invite specific external people to access particular files or folders. This option is correct because enabling external sharing in the Microsoft 365 admin settings permits users and site owners to share individual files or folders with named external recipients.

When external sharing is turned on administrators can configure whether sharing requires sign in or allows anonymous links and they can scope sharing to specific sites or to the whole tenant. The common and secure pattern is to invite specific external users who receive a sharing link and, if required, sign in or verify their identity to access only the items they were granted.

Files become available to anyone without requiring sign in is incorrect because the setting does not automatically make all files public. Sharing can require authentication and administrators can restrict or disable anonymous access. Enabling external sharing simply allows sharing with external identities under the configured policies.

Azure Active Directory B2B collaboration is automatically enabled for guest invitations is incorrect because Azure AD external collaboration settings are managed separately. Inviting guests often results in guest user accounts in Azure AD but the admin must still control Azure AD collaboration policies and consent settings independently.

The Everyone identity is applied to every shared item and granted full control is incorrect because items are not universally assigned to the Everyone claim with full control. Permissions are granted explicitly to the invited users or to links with the permissions the sharer selects and broad groups like Everyone are not automatically granted full control.

When you see the phrase external sharing think about invitations to specific people versus making content public. Watch for absolute words like automatically or everyone as they often indicate an incorrect option.

The correct option is Outlook.

Outlook is the Microsoft 365 application that functions as a personal information manager. It handles email and also provides calendar scheduling task tracking and contact management so users can manage messages appointments tasks and contacts from a single app.

Teams is a collaboration and communication platform built for chat meetings and file sharing and it is not primarily a personal information manager for email and contact management.

Excel is a spreadsheet program for calculations data analysis and modeling and it does not provide built in email management calendar scheduling or contact tracking as core features.

When a question asks which app is a personal information manager look for the one that bundles email with calendar tasks and contacts and choose Outlook when it is listed.

The correct option is App Protection.

App Protection policies are designed to protect and control access to specific mobile applications like Outlook and they include settings such as a required PIN or biometric to open the app. This lets you enforce a prompt every time the app is launched and it can be applied without requiring full device enrollment, which is useful for BYOD scenarios.

Device Compliance policies evaluate the overall state of a device and can require a device passcode for compliance but they do not enforce a per app PIN prompt each time an app is opened. Compliance policies are device wide and rely on the OS passcode rather than app level protections.

Device Configuration profiles configure OS and device settings like Wi Fi, VPN, certificates, and restrictions but they do not provide a mechanism to require a PIN specifically when launching an individual app such as Outlook.

Device Protection is not the Intune policy type that enforces per app access controls and it generally refers to device level security features like threat or antivirus protection. It will not provide the per app PIN on launch that an App Protection policy can enforce.

When a question asks about enforcing authentication or data protection inside a specific app on mobile devices think of App Protection policies because they operate at the app level rather than the device level.

Yes is correct. Authorized cloud resellers commonly offer volume discounts for Microsoft 365 licenses when customers purchase larger seat counts or commit to longer terms because partners can set pricing and margins to reflect volume.

Many resellers operate in Microsoft partner programs such as the Cloud Solution Provider program which allow partners to provide tiered pricing, promotional offers, or negotiated discounts based on volume, customer relationship, or regional pricing. These reseller discounts can appear as lower per-user charges, bundled offers, or rebates and they vary by partner and market.

Only for enterprise agreements is incorrect because Enterprise Agreements are only one licensing path for large organizations. Resellers can and do provide volume discounts outside of Enterprise Agreements through the Cloud Solution Provider channel and other partner arrangements, so discounts are not limited to enterprise agreements.

When you see pricing questions think about the Cloud Solution Provider program and partner negotiated pricing rather than assuming discounts apply only to one contractual vehicle.

The correct answer is Configuration Manager.

Configuration Manager provides full operating system deployment through task sequences and PXE based imaging which allows administrators to push a complete Windows 10 image to devices. Configuration Manager can join devices to an on premises Active Directory during the deployment process and it integrates with Windows Server Update Services and a software update point to deliver Windows updates to managed endpoints.

Configuration Manager also supports clients that are only on the internet by using a Cloud Management Gateway or internet based client management and it can be co managed with Microsoft Intune to extend management scenarios. Those capabilities let a retailer manage devices on the corporate LAN and remote devices with only internet access while still performing traditional imaging and AD joins.

Microsoft Intune is incorrect because Intune is a cloud mobile device and endpoint management service that focuses on Azure AD join and policy based management. Intune does not perform traditional full OS image deployment or native on premises Active Directory domain join in the same way that an imaging tool does.

Windows Autopilot is incorrect because Autopilot is a Windows provisioning service that handles out of box experience and provisioning to Azure AD and Intune. Autopilot is not designed to deploy full custom OS images or to perform classic on premises AD image and domain join workflows.

Microsoft Endpoint Manager is incorrect as the best single answer because it is a management umbrella that includes components such as Intune and Configuration Manager. The specific on premises imaging and AD join capabilities asked for in this scenario are provided by Configuration Manager rather than the umbrella brand alone.

Pay attention to phrases like full operating system image and join to the on premises Active Directory since those point to traditional imaging tools. Cloud services such as Intune and Autopilot focus on modern provisioning while Configuration Manager handles classic OS deployment and on premises AD joins.

Enterprise video hosting is correct. It best describes the primary purpose of an enterprise video platform used for collaboration.

An enterprise video hosting solution provides centralized storage and management for video content and it enables secure access controls, searchable transcripts, playback across devices, sharing, and analytics that support team collaboration and knowledge sharing.

Platforms that host enterprise video often also offer streaming capabilities and interactive features, but their core role is to manage on demand video assets for reuse and collaboration rather than only broadcasting live content. For example many hosting platforms let you record a meeting, index the recording, and make it available to teams for later review.

Live event streaming is focused on broadcasting events in real time and it emphasizes low latency delivery and simultaneous viewer scale. That makes it different from the broader hosting and management responsibilities of an enterprise video platform even though some platforms include streaming features.

Real-time document co-editing refers to simultaneous editing of text documents or spreadsheets and it is a feature of productivity suites. It does not relate to storing, managing, indexing, and sharing video content which is the primary function of enterprise video hosting.

Read the question for the core capability being tested. If it emphasizes storage, management, searchable playback, and access controls then choose enterprise video hosting rather than live broadcast or document editing options.

B2B direct connect is the correct feature to enable seamless cross tenant collaboration in Microsoft Teams shared channels without requiring users to switch tenants or sign in with separate accounts.

The B2B direct connect capability establishes a direct relationship between Microsoft Entra tenants so that users can access shared channels using their home credentials and remain in their primary tenant context. This approach avoids creating guest accounts in the resource tenant and preserves presence, chat, and meeting experiences as if the users were in the same tenant.

Enabling B2B direct connect involves configuring the appropriate Microsoft Entra settings and Teams admin center controls to allow organization relationships and consent for cross tenant collaboration. Administrators must ensure the tenants accept the direct connect relationship and apply any necessary policies to secure the collaboration.

Microsoft Entra B2B collaboration is a general mechanism for inviting guest users and managing their access but it typically relies on guest account creation or tenant switching and does not itself provide the seamless shared channel experience that B2B direct connect delivers.

Azure AD External Identities covers external identity and authentication scenarios and it helps bring external users into Azure AD. It is not the specific Teams cross tenant feature that enables in context shared channel membership without switching tenants.

Hybrid identity refers to integrating on premises Active Directory with Azure AD for synchronization and single sign on. It addresses on premises and identity federation needs and is not relevant to cross tenant shared channel collaboration in Teams.

For questions about Teams shared channels and seamless cross tenant access look for answers that explicitly mention B2B direct connect or cross tenant direct relationships rather than general guest or hybrid identity terms.

Microsoft Teams is correct because it provides meeting activity analytics that show how users join sessions and which device types they use.

Microsoft Teams delivers analytics and reports in the Teams admin center and through usage and call analytics tools so administrators can see participant join methods and device categories such as mobile, desktop, and IP phones. These reports help with troubleshooting and with understanding how meetings are accessed across the organization.

Microsoft Endpoint Manager is focused on device provisioning, configuration, and policy management and does not provide meeting activity or participant device analytics for meetings.

Azure Active Directory handles identity, authentication, and access management and does not offer meeting join or device type analytics, so it is not the correct service for this kind of reporting.

When a question mentions meeting activity or how participants join pick collaboration and communications services such as Microsoft Teams rather than identity or device management products.

Yes staff can override a DLP rule after supplying a business justification and the override can be audited

This option is correct because many data loss prevention implementations let users supply a business justification when a policy match is detected and the system records that justification as part of an audit trail. The recorded override and justification allow compliance teams to review exceptions and track who invoked them and why.

Only global administrators can approve overrides in the compliance center is incorrect because approvals and override handling are controlled by the DLP policy configuration and role assignments rather than being restricted only to global administrators. Different platforms allow delegation or built in override flows that do not require a global admin to approve every override.

No staff are allowed to override a DLP rule is incorrect because many DLP solutions explicitly support user overrides with a required business justification and they log those overrides for auditing and investigation. Blocking all overrides would prevent legitimate business needs from proceeding and would remove the ability to track and justify exceptions.

When you see DLP questions check whether the policy mentions user justification and audit logging. If both are supported then an override with a recorded reason is usually possible.

The correct option is Cloud Monitoring anomaly detection.

Cloud Monitoring anomaly detection analyzes metric time series with statistical and machine learning techniques to find unusual deviations from normal behavior so teams are notified about performance degradations or unexpected failures. It can establish baselines and surface anomalous spikes or drops in metrics and it integrates with Monitoring alerting to deliver notifications to developers.

Cloud Trace captures and visualizes distributed traces and latency information so it helps diagnose slow requests and trace causal paths but it does not perform metric anomaly detection.

Alerting policies define the conditions and notification channels used to send alerts and they can be triggered by anomalies, but the alerting framework itself is not the capability that detects anomalies. It depends on metrics or detectors to generate the conditions that cause alerts.

Cloud Error Reporting aggregates and groups application errors and reports new error groups so it focuses on exceptions and stack traces rather than detecting anomalous metric behavior.

When a question mentions automatic detection of metric deviations look for the feature name that explicitly references anomaly detection. Focus on the capability that analyzes time series data rather than services that trace requests or group errors.

The correct answers are Microsoft 365 includes the same Office applications and cloud services as Office 365 and also adds Windows licensing and Enterprise Mobility and Security, Microsoft 365 represents an expansion of capabilities beyond the core Office applications and hosted services, and Large organizations can select between Office 365 and Microsoft 365 based on requirements for enhanced security and centralized device management.

Microsoft 365 includes the same Office applications and cloud services as Office 365 and also adds Windows licensing and Enterprise Mobility and Security is correct because Microsoft 365 bundles the Office apps and cloud services with Windows licensing and with Enterprise Mobility and Security capabilities. This additional licensing brings device management and advanced security controls such as Intune, Azure AD Premium, and threat protection which go beyond the Office application set.

Microsoft 365 represents an expansion of capabilities beyond the core Office applications and hosted services is correct because Microsoft 365 is designed as a broader productivity and security bundle that includes operating system licensing and management features in addition to the hosted Office services. The expansion makes it a more comprehensive offering for organizations that need unified management and protection.

Large organizations can select between Office 365 and Microsoft 365 based on requirements for enhanced security and centralized device management is correct because enterprises that require integrated Windows licensing, centralized device management, or advanced security controls commonly choose Microsoft 365. Smaller teams or scenarios that only need Office applications and cloud services may continue to use Office 365 level subscriptions.

Office 365 was launched exclusively for corporate accounts and did not offer personal cloud storage is incorrect because Office 365 has included consumer subscription variants and integrated personal cloud storage options such as OneDrive for consumers. The statement is historically and factually inaccurate and does not reflect how the service was offered to individual users.

When comparing Office 365 and Microsoft 365 look for mentions of Windows licensing and Enterprise Mobility and Security as indicators that the question is referring to the broader Microsoft 365 bundle.

The correct answer is Adoption score report.

The Adoption score report in the Microsoft 365 admin center is designed to show adoption progress and it provides measurements and actionable recommendations. It evaluates both people experiences and technical reliability and it surfaces areas where adoption can be improved and where technical changes may help users.

Security reports are focused on security signals such as threat detection and protection posture and they do not provide adoption progress or the people experience and technical reliability recommendations that the adoption score gives.

Usage reports show activity and consumption metrics for services and they give insights into how services are used. They do not combine those metrics into an overall adoption score with targeted recommendations for people experiences and technical reliability.

When you see report names that mention adoption or that describe both user experience and system reliability you should choose the option that explicitly references adoption scoring rather than generic usage or security reports.

Bank debit card and Corporate credit card are the correct options for an account that has multiple profiles.

Microsoft supports card based payment methods at the billing profile level so a Corporate credit card can be associated with a profile and used to pay subscriptions managed under that profile. The same is true for a Bank debit card in regions where bank cards are supported because bank debit cards are treated as automatic profile level payment methods.

PayPal is incorrect because PayPal is typically available only for certain consumer or single profile subscriptions and it is not generally offered as a payment method for multi profile enterprise billing scenarios.

Purchase order is incorrect because purchase orders rely on invoice based billing and special credit arrangements and they are not a standard per profile payment method for accounts that use multiple billing profiles.

Focus on whether the payment method is applied at the billing profile level when you see questions about multiple profiles and remember that card based methods are commonly supported per profile while PayPal and purchase order have limitations.

The correct answer is Microsoft Teams.

Microsoft Teams provides the chat and presence functionality that replaces on premises Skype for Business. It is the cloud first, unified collaboration service that combines persistent chat, presence, calling, and meetings and Microsoft positions it as the migration target for Skype for Business users.

Exchange Online focuses on email, calendar, and mailbox services and does not provide the persistent instant messaging and presence features that a chat replacement requires. That is why it is not the correct choice.

Yammer is an enterprise social networking product for community and knowledge sharing and it is not designed to provide real time chat and presence functionality. It therefore does not replace Skype for Business chat and presence.

Skype for Business Online was the cloud incarnation of Skype for Business and it has been retired and deprecated. It is the legacy service that Microsoft Teams replaces and it is not the correct answer on current exams because the replacement is Teams.

When a question asks which workload replaces an on premises capability focus on the service that offers the same core function. For chat and presence that is Microsoft Teams rather than Exchange or Yammer.

The correct option is Yes, No. This indicates that the Service Level Agreement spells out Contoso uptime commitments for hosted services and that it does not describe the managed service provider support arrangements.

Service level agreements commonly define availability targets, how uptime is measured, and any service credit remedies for breaches. Those elements are what make up the uptime commitments that Contoso would include in its hosted services SLA.

Details about support arrangements for managed service providers are usually handled in separate partner or support contracts rather than in the customer facing SLA. That is why the SLA can state uptime commitments while leaving MSP support terms to other agreements.

No, Yes is incorrect because it asserts that the SLA omits uptime commitments but includes MSP support details. That reverses the usual separation between uptime terms and partner support agreements.

Yes, Yes is incorrect because it claims the SLA contains both uptime commitments and the managed service provider support arrangements. In practice the SLA covers availability and credits while MSP support terms are typically in distinct contracts.

No, No is incorrect because it denies that the SLA includes uptime commitments. The uptime commitments are a core part of most SLAs so denying them misstates the document purpose.

When reading SLA questions look for sections that mention availability or service credits and then check for separate partner or support agreements that would cover managed service provider terms.

Yes is correct. Conditional Access in Azure Active Directory can require multi factor authentication for administrators when they perform cloud management tasks by targeting administrative roles or the management cloud apps and requiring MFA as a grant control.

You implement this by creating a Conditional Access policy that targets specific users or directory roles such as Global Administrator or Privileged Role Administrator and then include cloud apps like Azure Management or the Azure portal as the scope. The policy can require multi factor authentication as a condition before granting access so administrators must complete MFA for cloud management activities.

Only via security defaults is incorrect because security defaults provide a simple baseline set of protections and they do not replace Conditional Access. Security defaults can enforce some MFA flows but they lack the granularity and role or app targeting that Conditional Access policies provide.

No is incorrect because Conditional Access explicitly supports policies that require MFA for privileged or administrative operations and for access to cloud management endpoints.

When a question asks about enforcing MFA for admin tasks look for whether policies can target administrative roles or specific management cloud apps. Remember that security defaults are a basic option but Conditional Access gives you the granular control you need.

The correct answer is Microsoft Viva Connections.

Microsoft Viva Connections provides a single branded gateway inside Microsoft Teams where employees see personalized news, join relevant conversations and quickly access the tools and content they need for their roles. It surfaces a SharePoint based home experience, configurable dashboard cards and company navigation inside Teams so organizations can present a central, role based entry point for employees.

Microsoft SharePoint Home aggregates sites and news in SharePoint and supports discovery in the browser and mobile app but it is not the Teams integrated, branded gateway that combines home feed, dashboard and navigation the way Viva Connections does.

Microsoft MyCompany Portal is not an official built in Microsoft Teams application and it does not represent the built in Viva Connections experience. Custom or third party portals may exist with similar names but they are not the native Teams entry point described in the question.

Microsoft Viva Engage focuses on communities and social engagement and continues the Yammer like conversation experience inside Microsoft 365. It supports community building and discussions but it is not intended to be the unified, role based gateway and personalized home experience that Viva Connections provides.

When a question mentions a single branded gateway or a Teams entry point that surfaces personalized news and tools think of Viva Connections because that is the integrated Teams experience for delivering a company home and dashboard.

The correct option is Users then Active users then Add a user.

This path opens the Active users area of the Microsoft 365 admin center where you can create a new user account assign licenses and set roles. The Add a user wizard in that area guides you through choosing a username entering contact information and assigning the appropriate license and role.

Microsoft Entra then All users is not the expected path in the Microsoft 365 admin center. Microsoft Entra is the identity service and it has its own admin portal where you can manage identities and directory objects but the question asks about the Microsoft 365 admin center and the standard place there to add a user is Active users.

Billing then Licenses is incorrect because the Billing and Licenses pages are for managing subscriptions and license assignments. You do not create new user accounts from the Billing and Licenses area.

When a question asks where to add a user in the Microsoft 365 admin center look for the Users menu and then open Active users to use Add a user.

The correct option is Tenant Attach.

Tenant Attach is the Configuration Manager capability that links an on premises Configuration Manager site to an Intune tenant. It creates the synchronization and integration that lets administrators see devices from Configuration Manager together with Intune managed devices in the same console and it is a central part of the cloud attach story that works alongside co management and Endpoint analytics.

Cloud Sync is not correct because that term usually refers to synchronizing identities or specific data flows and it does not provide the core site to tenant link and consolidated device view that Tenant Attach provides.

Consolidated Device View is not the right choice because it describes the outcome or a view within the console rather than the capability that performs the synchronization and tenant connection. The synchronization and tenant connection are delivered by Tenant Attach.

Co management is not correct because co management enables workload transitions and management splits between Configuration Manager and Intune. It complements Tenant Attach but it is not the feature that creates the site to tenant synchronization or provides the tenant attach consolidated view on its own.

When a question mentions synchronization between a Configuration Manager site and an Intune tenant look for the feature that explicitly connects the two systems. Tenant Attach is the integration point that enables the consolidated view and cloud attach functionality.

Outlook is the correct option.

The WorkSense Insights add-in is hosted in Outlook because it integrates with a user’s calendar and email to surface meeting suggestions and to help schedule focus time and time off within the calendar experience.

Teams is incorrect because the Insights add-in that offers meeting suggestions and manages focus time is implemented for the mail and calendar environment rather than as a Teams app.

OneNote is incorrect because OneNote is a note taking application and it does not host the WorkSense Insights add-in which works with calendar and email in Outlook.

When a question mentions meeting suggestions or scheduling and focus features think about calendar integration and choose Outlook since add-ins that interact with mail and calendar are hosted there.

The correct option is Control all tenant wide administrative settings and manage every directory object in Contoso Directory.

The Global Administrator role grants tenant wide administrative control in Azure Active Directory and it can manage every directory object, assign and revoke roles, configure tenant settings, and access administrative features used by Microsoft services that rely on the directory.

Manage only subscription billing and submit support requests is incorrect because that option describes limited billing or support privileges and does not provide the full directory and tenant controls that the Global Administrator has.

Create and manage users and groups without access to global administrative controls is incorrect because user and group management is only a subset of directory tasks and the Global Administrator role includes those tasks plus global administrative controls across the tenant.

Manage only service specific administrator roles such as Mail Administrator or Site Collection Administrator is incorrect because service specific administrators have limited scopes and cannot perform the full tenant wide administration that the Global Administrator can.

When you see words like tenant wide or global in a role description they typically indicate full administrative access. Focus on the scope of the role when comparing role names to their responsibilities.

The correct answer is Word.

Word is the Office application designed for composing editing and formatting text documents. It provides collaborative real time coauthoring so multiple people can work on the same document together and it offers grammar and spelling suggestions via Microsoft Editor as well as a wide range of templates for letters reports resumes and other document types which match the features described in the question.

PowerPoint is intended for creating slide based presentations and is not the primary tool for composing full text documents even though slides can contain text.

Excel is a spreadsheet application focused on numerical data organization analysis and calculations and it does not provide the document centric templates and grammar features emphasized in the question.

OneNote is a note taking and freeform information capture app and it lacks the formal document layout styling and advanced grammar checking features that are characteristic of a word processor.

When a question mentions composing formatting templates or grammar suggestions think Word and look for clues like document letter report or real time coauthoring to confirm your selection.

The correct options are Azure AD Premium P1 and Azure AD Premium P2.

Both Azure AD Premium P1 and Azure AD Premium P2 include self service password reset with password writeback when used with Azure AD Connect. That writeback is what allows staff who remain on site to reset their on premises Active Directory passwords and have those changes applied on site.

Microsoft 365 Apps for enterprise is a productivity app subscription and it does not provide Azure AD on premises password writeback or the SSPR features required for hybrid password resets.

Azure AD Free does not include password writeback for on premises Active Directory and so it cannot support self service resets that update on premises passwords. The Free tier may allow limited cloud only SSPR but it lacks the writeback capability needed for hybrid environments.

When a question mentions resetting on premises passwords look for licenses that include password writeback and Azure AD Connect because that capability is the key requirement.

The correct answer is Measures adherence to recommended security practices.

Identity Secure Score evaluates how well a directory follows recommended identity and access security practices and it provides a numerical score and actionable recommendations to improve that posture.

Displays consolidated sign-in logs is incorrect because Secure Score is not a logging or reporting tool and it does not provide raw sign-in event logs which are available from audit logs and sign-in reports.

Monitors users connecting to external apps is incorrect because Secure Score focuses on configuration and policy recommendations rather than on real time monitoring of user connections to external applications which is handled by separate app access and OAuth activity reports.

When deciding between options ask whether the feature measures security posture and provides recommendations or whether it captures events and activity logs. Secure score is about posture and recommendations.

True is correct.

Workload identities are non human identities used by applications and services to authenticate and obtain access tokens. They commonly appear as service principals or managed identities which let applications represent themselves to the identity platform without needing user credentials.

In the Contoso Identity platform an application registration or enterprise application is represented by a service principal in a tenant and workloads running in supported environments can use managed identities. That is why describing workload identities as service principals and managed identities is accurate.

False is incorrect because it denies the fact that workload identities are the non human accounts that include service principals and managed identities rather than being a different kind of user identity.

When you see questions about workload identities remember they refer to non human identities such as service principals and managed identities and not to regular user accounts.

The correct answer is No.

No is correct because Microsoft Planner is an internal task and project management tool and it does not include built in customer facing appointment scheduling or the ability to send automated SMS confirmations and reminders to clients. Planner provides task assignments and notifications within an organization but it does not provide the client communication features required to send appointment confirmations and SMS messages.

Microsoft Bookings is incorrect because the question specifically asks about Microsoft Planner. Bookings is a different Microsoft service that is designed for appointment scheduling and it can send confirmations and reminders to customers, so it is not the same product named in the question.

Yes is incorrect because that response would claim Planner can perform those customer facing scheduling and SMS functions, which it cannot. The correct choice is No because Planner does not have those capabilities.

When a question targets a specific product focus on the product name and compare its core purpose to the feature asked about. Check product documentation if you are unsure and eliminate answers that refer to a different product name.

The correct answer is Azure Active Directory Identity Protection. It is the Microsoft 365 service that detects risky sign in behavior and flags potentially compromised user accounts.

The service analyzes signals such as impossible travel, unfamiliar locations, atypical sign in properties, and leaked credentials to assign risk levels to sign ins and to users. It surfaces risky sign in events and compromised account flags and it can trigger remediation through risk based conditional access and automated actions like forcing a password reset or requiring multifactor authentication.

Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps focuses on cloud app discovery, shadow IT detection, data protection, and session controls. It does not primarily perform Azure AD sign in risk scoring or mark user accounts as compromised in the same way that Identity Protection does.

Microsoft Exchange Online Protection is an email filtering service that protects mail flow from spam, phishing, and malware. It does not analyze sign in risk or flag compromised Azure AD user accounts.

Microsoft Defender for Identity monitors on premises Active Directory signals and detects lateral movement and domain compromise techniques. It is useful for detecting identity based attacks in an on premises environment but it does not provide the Azure AD sign in risk scoring and automated remediation features of Identity Protection.

When a question asks about detecting risky sign in behavior and compromised accounts look for Azure Active Directory features such as Identity Protection rather than email gateways or CASB tools.

The correct option is Kanban board and deadline reminders.

Microsoft Planner uses a Kanban style board with buckets and cards so teams can visually organize and move tasks through stages, and it supports assigning due dates so work can be tracked by deadline.

The deadline reminders include in app notifications, email alerts and integration with Microsoft 365 so assignees can get notified about upcoming due dates in Outlook or Teams and receive push notifications on mobile.

The option No integrations with other productivity apps is incorrect because Planner integrates with Microsoft 365 services such as Teams, Outlook and To Do and it can be added as a tab in Teams or surfaced in group calendars.

The option Desktop only without web or mobile access is incorrect because Planner is a web based service with mobile apps and deep integration into Teams so it is not limited to desktop access.

When you see choices that mention both a Kanban board and reminders think of Planner and choose the option that combines visual task organization with notification features.

The correct answers are Scalability means adjusting computing and storage resources to match varying demand and Being able to scale resources helps avoid paying for capacity that is not used.

Scalability means adjusting computing and storage resources to match varying demand is correct because cloud platforms provide autoscaling, load balancing, and managed storage so resources can grow or shrink as traffic changes. This ability allows an application to remain responsive during peaks and to reduce resources when demand falls.

Being able to scale resources helps avoid paying for capacity that is not used is correct because clouds use pay for use models and automated scaling so you do not need to provision for the highest possible load at all times. Autoscaling and right sizing let Harbor Retail support peak shopping periods while controlling ongoing costs.

Horizontal scaling refers to changing the capacity such as adding more CPU or memory to an existing server is incorrect because that description refers to vertical scaling. Horizontal scaling actually means adding more machines or instances to distribute load across multiple servers.

Vertical scaling means provisioning additional virtual machines or container instances is incorrect because that description refers to horizontal scaling. Vertical scaling means increasing CPU, memory, or disk on a single server or VM and it is limited by the capacity of that machine.

When answering, focus on whether the option describes adding more machines or increasing resources of one machine. Remember that horizontal means more instances and vertical means bigger instances and that autoscaling plus pay as you go is how clouds control costs.

Service subscribers is correct. When an organization subscribes to cloud services the identities that are directly created or enabled for accessing those services are the service subscribers so they are the ones automatically granted access to the organization identity directory.

The subscription process typically provisions or links accounts for the subscribing users so those users are present in the directory and can be assigned IAM roles and permissions. This is why Service subscribers are the correct choice because they represent the accounts that consume and access the subscribed services by default.

Tenant administrators is incorrect because administrators are not automatically created by a service subscription. Administrators must already exist in the directory or be explicitly assigned administrative roles and privileges.

External guests is incorrect because guest accounts come from outside the organization and must be invited or federated explicitly. A subscription does not automatically add external guests to the organization’s identity directory.

Read the question for who is created or enabled by default and focus on the actor that consumes the service. Look for words like subscribers which usually indicate identities that are provisioned automatically.

The correct answer is Microsoft Forms.

Microsoft Forms is designed for creating both quick polls and longer surveys and it provides a simple response summary view for immediate insights. It also includes the ability to export collected responses to Excel so the bookstore can perform further analysis or retain records.

Microsoft Forms gives a straightforward authoring experience for questions and it automatically aggregates replies into charts and tables for easy viewing. The export to Excel feature meets the requirement to easily export collected responses for reporting or archiving.

Power BI is focused on data visualization and reporting and it is not the right tool to create or collect surveys and polls. You could analyze survey data in Power BI after collecting it, but it does not provide native survey creation and response collection features.

Microsoft Teams is a collaboration platform and it can host apps or integrations that run polls, but Teams itself is not the primary survey creation and export tool. Using Teams would still typically rely on a Forms integration or another survey tool to collect and export structured responses.

Microsoft 365 Apps for Enterprise refers to the productivity app suite and does not itself provide dedicated survey and polling features. It includes Office applications but it is not the direct solution for creating, viewing, and exporting survey responses.

When a question asks about creating polls and surveys and about viewing or exporting responses look for the product that is specifically built for forms and surveys. Key words like export and responses often point to Forms.

Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is correct.

Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is the billing classification used when an organization opens a billing account under a volume licensing contract to procure software licenses and online services because it is designed to aggregate transactional purchases and license management under a single volume licensing agreement.

Cloud Solution Provider is incorrect because that program describes a partner reseller model where a CSP manages customer billing and subscriptions rather than the specific volume licensing billing account classification for directly procuring licenses and online services.

Enterprise Agreement is incorrect because the Enterprise Agreement is a large organization licensing program and not the specific billing account classification used for transactional volume licensing purchases of software licenses and online services in the way that the Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is defined.

Note that Microsoft has been moving licensing and commerce to newer agreement models in some regions and scenarios and the Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) may be considered legacy in places where the Microsoft Customer Agreement or Cloud Solution Provider options are used instead.

Focus on the phrase volume licensing and whether the question refers to direct transactional procurement of both software and online services to pick the agreement that covers those purchases.

The correct options are Microsoft Authenticator and Windows Hello for Business.

Microsoft Authenticator is an authenticator app that supports two step verification and passwordless sign in. It can deliver push notifications or time based one time passcodes and so it functions as a method employees can use to verify their identity when signing in to Microsoft 365.

Windows Hello for Business uses a PIN or biometric factors such as fingerprint or facial recognition to replace passwords. It provides strong device bound verification and can be used as a second factor or as a passwordless credential for signing in to Microsoft 365 resources.

Azure AD Identity Protection is a risk detection and remediation service that identifies risky sign ins and compromised accounts and it can trigger conditional access policies. It is not itself a user presented method for verifying identity during sign in.

Customer Lockbox for Microsoft 365 is a compliance and access control feature that governs Microsoft engineer access to customer data during support activities and it is unrelated to user authentication at sign in.

When a question asks which tools users can present at sign in look for options that are explicitly authentication methods such as an authenticator app or a passwordless biometric or PIN solution rather than management or compliance services.

All Azure questions come from my MS-900 Udemy course and certificationexams.pro

The correct option is Microsoft 365 Roadmap.

The Microsoft 365 Roadmap is the official public listing that shows planned and launched Microsoft 365 features and their rollout timelines. It provides each feature entry with status such as In development, Rolling out, and Launched and notes on target release dates so you can track when features are expected and when they become generally available.

Microsoft Tech Community is a forum for discussions, blogs, and announcements and it is useful for community insights and product updates but it does not serve as the centralized, official timeline of planned and launched Microsoft 365 features.

Microsoft 365 admin center is the tenant management console where admins configure services and view service health. It contains the Message center for tenant specific notices but it does not provide the public, feature by feature roadmap with global timelines that the roadmap page provides.

Message center delivers targeted communications and alerts about changes that affect your specific tenant and it is focused on announcements and guidance rather than acting as the public roadmap listing planned feature timelines.

When a question asks where to find planned features and timelines choose the official Microsoft 365 Roadmap and treat community forums and tenant notices as complementary but not the definitive timeline.

The correct options are Scale application resources on demand, Remove capital expense of buying physical servers, and Automate backup and disaster recovery with cloud services.

Scale application resources on demand allows the company to automatically add or remove compute and related resources in response to traffic and load. This reduces the risk of performance bottlenecks during spikes and helps control costs because you pay for what you use rather than pre provisioning for peak capacity.

Remove capital expense of buying physical servers shifts spending from large up front hardware purchases to operational expenses for cloud services. This lowers the initial investment required to run workloads and removes the need to manage physical datacenter hardware and refresh cycles.

Automate backup and disaster recovery with cloud services gives access to managed backup, replication, and recovery tools that can orchestrate cross region failover and scheduled snapshots. These services simplify testing and help meet recovery time and recovery point objectives without building a separate physical DR site.

Cloud CDN is an edge caching product that speeds delivery of web content for appropriate workloads. It is not a broad migration advantage because it only benefits use cases that need global content acceleration and it does not represent general improvements like cost model changes or managed backups.

Reduce configuration requirements for employee desktops is incorrect because moving server and application workloads to the cloud does not automatically change how employee desktops are configured. Desktop management and virtual desktop projects are separate initiatives and may require different services to simplify workstation configuration.

When answering migration benefit questions focus on answers that describe broad platform advantages such as scaling, cost model changes, and managed services. Be cautious of options that name a specific product unless the product clearly matches the stated benefit.

Affirmative for both statements is correct.

The Label Activity Explorer in Microsoft Purview enables administrators to review how labels are applied and to track labeling events across content so you can audit and report on label activity rather than relying only on raw logs.

Administrators can also create inactive mailboxes in Exchange Online to retain mailbox data indefinitely when the mailbox has a retention policy or litigation hold applied before the user account or license is removed. Inactive mailboxes preserve content for eDiscovery and compliance until the mailbox is explicitly deleted or holds are removed.

No for both statements is incorrect because both label activity review and the ability to create inactive mailboxes are supported features.

Label activity via audit logs only is incorrect because Purview provides a Label Activity Explorer that presents label events and trends in a managed view and not only raw audit log entries.

Label activity yes only is incorrect because while label activity can be reviewed administrators can also create inactive mailboxes to retain mailbox data indefinitely so both statements are true.

When you see questions that combine labeling and mailbox retention focus on the specific product features and remember that retention or hold settings are required to create an inactive mailbox that preserves data.

The correct option is Effective meetings.

Effective meetings is the specific capability within Microsoft Viva Insights that gives meeting hosts tailored, post meeting feedback to help refine meeting routines and it also enables collection of participant feedback through short surveys and ratings.

Effective meetings surfaces patterns such as meeting length, attendance and agenda use and it suggests adjustments like shorter meetings, clearer agendas or fewer attendees so hosts can improve future meetings.

Viva Insights is incorrect because it is the broader platform that includes many features and it does not name the specific meeting feedback capability asked for.

Wellbeing insights is incorrect because that capability focuses on personal and team wellbeing signals such as stress and work patterns and it does not provide the meeting host feedback and participant survey features described.

Protect time is incorrect because it is a feature to reserve blocks of focus time for individuals and it does not collect participant feedback or provide tailored meeting performance insights.

Read whether the question asks for a specific capability or the broader product. Look for keywords like tailored feedback and participant feedback that point to a meeting feedback feature rather than a general service.

The correct answer is KQL.

KQL stands for Kusto Query Language and it is the language used by Azure Monitor Logs and Application Insights to retrieve telemetry and logs. It is designed for time series and diagnostic data and provides operators for filtering, aggregation, and correlation that are appropriate for telemetry queries in an Application Insights workspace.

PromQL is the query language used by Prometheus and systems based on Prometheus metrics and it is not used by Azure Application Insights so it is not correct.

SQL is the standard relational database query language and it is not the native language for Application Insights telemetry. Application Insights queries use KQL rather than SQL.

When a question asks about querying telemetry or logs for Application Insights remember that Azure Monitor and Application Insights use KQL. Match each query language to its platform so you do not confuse it with PromQL or SQL.

The correct answer is Your account is not assigned the Global Administrator role.

This error appears when a user tries to open or manage support requests but lacks the high level administrative permissions that the Microsoft 365 Admin Center requires. The Global Administrator role includes the broad permissions needed to access the support page and perform support actions so a user without that role will receive an access denied message.

While some organizations may grant other specific support roles or delegated permissions to handle service requests, the Global Administrator role is the universal admin role that ensures access to create and manage support tickets in the admin center.

Your sign in password has expired is incorrect because an expired password typically prevents sign in or prompts for a password reset and does not normally produce an access denied message within the admin center for a signed in user.

Your user account is configured as a guest in the tenant is incorrect because guest accounts are limited but the described error specifically points to missing administrative privileges. Guest status could block access in other ways but it is not the most likely cause when the action requires an admin role.

The organization does not have a Microsoft Unified Support plan is incorrect because lacking a paid support plan affects entitlement to certain support channels but it does not produce a permission denied error for accessing the support page. The message indicates the problem is the user account permissions rather than the tenant support contract.

When you see a permission error check the user�s assigned admin roles first and verify whether they have the Global Administrator role or another role that grants support request permissions.

The correct answer is Yes and No.

When you @mention someone in a Word comment on a file saved in a shared library the person receives an email notification that includes the comment text and a short preview or context snippet along with a link to open the document in Word or Word for the web. The notification is intended to bring the recipient back into the document so they can see the comment in context.

The recipient cannot reply to the comment directly from the email to add to the document comment thread. You must open the document and reply in the comments pane in Word or Word for the web for the response to appear in the comment thread.

Yes and Yes is incorrect because the notification does include a preview snippet but it does not allow replying from the email to add or update the document comment thread.

No and No is incorrect because the first part is false. The email notification does include a snippet or preview of the comment so the answer is not both no and no.

No and Respond in Teams is incorrect because the email notification normally includes a preview and a link to the document and it does not provide a built in reply into Teams as the standard way to respond to that comment. Any Teams integration would be separate and is not the normal reply mechanism for the comment notification.

Read the question as two separate behaviors and answer each one on its own. Check the Microsoft support pages for the latest notification details because the exact email content and integrations can change over time. Notifications often include a preview but do not support replying into the document from the email.

The correct option is Premier Support.

Premier Support is the tier that offers round the clock phone and online assistance because it is designed for customers who need immediate access to technical help and rapid escalation paths outside normal business hours. This tier typically includes faster response times and dedicated support resources so that issues can be resolved at any time of day or night.

Standard Support is incorrect because it usually provides support during business hours and may rely on email or ticketing rather than continuous phone and online coverage. It does not guarantee 24/7 phone assistance.

Google Cloud Support is incorrect because it refers to support offerings for a different vendor and not to CloudWorks 365 tiers. It is not the named CloudWorks 365 tier that provides round the clock phone and online assistance.

Basic Support is incorrect because it normally offers very limited resources, often community forums and self help materials, and it does not include full time phone or online support.

When a question asks about continuous or 24/7 help look for wording like round the clock or phone and online assistance to identify the premium support tier.

The correct answer is Discover SaaS Applications.

Discover SaaS Applications in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps provides visibility into which SaaS applications are being used in your environment and it helps identify risky or suspicious app activity. The feature analyzes traffic logs and integrates with API connectors to detect shadow IT and to produce usage metrics and risk scores that help you prioritize investigation and remediation.

SaaS Security Posture Management focuses on assessing the security configuration and posture of sanctioned SaaS applications and it helps surface misconfigurations and compliance gaps rather than providing broad discovery of app usage.

Conditional Access App Control enforces session controls and provides real time monitoring when users access cloud apps through Azure AD Conditional Access. It helps control sessions but it is not the primary capability for discovering overall SaaS app usage across an organization.

When a question mentions visibility or usage of SaaS applications look for options that include the words Discover or Discovery because those terms usually indicate shadow IT and app usage reporting.

The correct option is Yes.

Microsoft Teams allows apps to expose tab experiences that users can add to channels and chats when the app supports that scope and it is available in the tenant. If Contoso Media is provided as an app that includes a tab component then it can be added to a Contoso Chat channel by a user who has permission to add tabs.

For a tab to be addable the app manifest must declare the appropriate tab scope and the tenant or team settings must permit the app. If those conditions are met the media tab will function like other tabs inside a chat channel.

The option No is incorrect because it states a blanket restriction. Tabs can be added to channels and chats provided the app supports the correct scope and is installed or permitted, so a simple no does not reflect how Teams handles tab additions.

When you see questions about adding tabs check whether the app supports the channel or chat scope and whether it is installed or allowed by the tenant. That determines if the tab can be added.

The correct option is Impact. Impact shows how page load times and other performance metrics relate to conversion rates.

Impact analyzes and correlates performance signals with user outcomes and conversion events so you can see whether slow pages or increased failures are reducing conversions. It surfaces the relationship between performance metrics and business impact which is why it is the right feature for this question.

Metrics Explorer is incorrect because it provides charts and visualizations of raw metrics over time but it does not directly correlate those metrics with conversion rates.

Funnels is incorrect because it focuses on visualizing user journeys and step by step conversion paths and drop off rather than linking performance metrics like page load time to conversion outcomes.

When a question asks about linking performance to user outcomes look for features that mention impact or correlation rather than general metric viewers or funnel visualizers.

The correct option is Adaptive Access Controls.

Adaptive Access Controls evaluate identity, location, and device health in real time to make access decisions. They implement context aware or conditional access policies that can allow, deny, or require additional authentication based on risk signals and device posture.

Adaptive Access Controls often use device attestation, endpoint management signals, and contextual attributes such as IP address and geolocation to enforce access and to step up trust checks when risk increases.

Threat Protection is focused on detecting and preventing malware and other threats and it does not itself perform identity and device health based access enforcement.

Policy Optimization is about refining and tuning policies for performance and accuracy and it is not the mechanism that makes context aware access decisions based on user identity, location, and device posture.

When a question asks about access decisions that depend on identity, location, or device posture choose answers that mention adaptive or context aware controls because those terms imply conditional access enforcement.

Viva Goals is correct because it is the Microsoft Viva application that manages objectives and key results and tracks goal progress.

Viva Goals provides an OKR framework to create and align objectives and key results across teams and it includes progress tracking dashboards and integrations with collaboration and work management tools to measure outcomes and drive alignment.

Viva Insights is focused on employee wellbeing and productivity analytics and it helps individuals and organizations with insights on work patterns rather than managing OKRs.

Viva Topics organizes and surfaces knowledge and expertise across an organization but it does not provide OKR management or goal progress tracking.

Microsoft Planner is a task and lightweight project management tool for planning and assigning work and it does not specifically provide an OKR framework for tracking objectives and key results.

When a question mentions OKRs look for references to objectives, key results, or goal progress because those phrases usually point to the application that manages goals.

The correct option is Software as a service SaaS. SaaS is appropriate because the retailer wants to modernize its messaging platform and lower the burden of maintaining servers and application software. With SaaS the provider hosts and manages the messaging application and the underlying infrastructure so the business does not need to run Exchange servers or apply application updates itself.

With SaaS responsibilities such as operating system patches, application upgrades, security updates, backups, and scaling are handled by the service provider. This greatly reduces administrative overhead and speeds the migration to a cloud email solution.

Infrastructure as a service IaaS is incorrect because IaaS provides virtualized servers and networking but leaves the customer responsible for installing, configuring, and maintaining the operating system and application. That approach does not remove the application management burden the business wants to avoid.

Platform as a service PaaS is incorrect because PaaS offers a managed platform for building and running applications but typically still requires application deployment work and is not the usual choice for moving a packaged email server to a fully managed messaging service.

Google Workspace is incorrect in this question because it names a specific product rather than a service model. Google Workspace is an example of Software as a service SaaS, and it could be a suitable solution, but the question asks which cloud service model to choose so the correct model answer is SaaS.

When a question says the organization wants to avoid running servers and managing application software choose the service model that removes those responsibilities. Look for SaaS as the answer and treat specific product names as examples rather than the model.

All listed capabilities is the correct answer.

External Identities for customers is a customer identity solution that combines multiple features needed for customer facing authentication and user management. It supports federation with social and enterprise identity providers so you can enable sign in from those accounts. The service provides a hosted and brandable authentication user interface that you can customize for registration and sign in. It also includes user account management and password recovery flows so customers can manage their accounts themselves.

Single sign on using social and enterprise identities is a real feature of the product but it represents only one capability and therefore it is not the correct choice by itself.

Hosted and branded registration and sign in pages are available but that feature alone does not cover the full set of capabilities in the product so it is not correct on its own.

Self service account management and password reset is included in External Identities but it is only one part of the platform and therefore that option is not the complete answer.

When an option says All listed capabilities make sure each individual feature is actually supported by the service before choosing it on the exam.

All Azure questions come from my MS-900 Udemy course and certificationexams.pro

The correct answer is General Availability Channel.

The General Availability Channel is intended for broad, stable releases and can follow a yearly feature release cadence that is useful for pilot rollouts and validation testing. Administrators can pilot updates and then decide when to deploy them more widely which provides control for organizations that need predictability while still allowing access to newer capabilities.

The Feature Preview Channel is incorrect because that option implies frequent previews of new features rather than a controlled yearly release for pilots and validation.

The Early Access Channel is incorrect because early access generally grants users preview builds before wide release and does not reflect the yearly, admin controlled deployment described in the question.

The Targeted Release Channel is incorrect because targeted release usually means a selected group receives updates earlier for testing and evaluation and it is not the same as a general availability channel that follows a yearly pilot and validation process.

When an exam option contrasts words like General Availability and Early Access map those to stable versus preview and pick the choice that matches a planned, admin controlled rollout.

Open and view a document is correct. After deactivating the Microsoft 365 Apps license on a desktop the applications typically remain installed but switch into a read only or reduced functionality state so opening and viewing files is still possible.

When the license is deactivated the user is signed out or the app disables editing features and licensing checks prevent creation or modification of content. In that state a user can still open and view a document to read or print it but cannot save or use premium editing features that require an active subscription.

Create a new document is wrong because creating a new file requires write and editing capabilities that are disabled when the license is deactivated.

Edit a document is wrong because editing and saving changes require an active, licensed session and those capabilities are removed when the Microsoft 365 Apps license is deactivated.

When you see questions about deactivated licenses think about whether the action needs write or editing rights. Deactivated Microsoft 365 Apps usually allow view only actions but block creation and editing.

The correct answer is Microsoft SharePoint.

Microsoft SharePoint enables organizations to create intranet portals and team sites while storing organizing and sharing documents. It provides built in version history, real time coauthoring, and workflow capabilities and it can be accessed from browsers and mobile devices as part of Microsoft 365.

Microsoft OneDrive is primarily personal file storage and sync for individual users and it supports sharing and syncing but it does not provide intranet portals or full team site features.

Microsoft Dynamics 365 is a suite of customer engagement and enterprise resource planning applications and it focuses on business apps rather than document centered intranet portals or team collaboration sites.

Microsoft Power BI is a business analytics and data visualization service and it is designed for reporting and dashboards rather than document storage, version history, or team site creation.

When a question mentions intranet portals, team sites, version history or coauthoring choose the collaboration and content management service that is SharePoint.

No modification is needed is correct. The question asks whether you should change Intune App Protection to stop employees moving corporate files into personal OneDrive and the right response is that you would not modify App Protection for this purpose.

Intune App Protection is focused on protecting app data on managed mobile apps and on controlling data transfer between managed and unmanaged apps. Changing App Protection will not by itself prevent users from saving corporate files to a personal OneDrive account from environments that are outside the scope of app protection. Preventing uploads to personal cloud accounts is handled by tenant and OneDrive sharing controls or by a CASB when that is specifically required, so no modification to App Protection is needed here.

Microsoft Purview Information Protection is incorrect. Information Protection provides classification, labeling, and encryption to protect data but it does not directly block a user from copying or uploading a file into a personal OneDrive account.

Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps is incorrect. Defender for Cloud Apps is a CASB that can discover cloud usage and apply session controls or block risky activities when configured, but it is a separate solution that requires specific policies and licensing and it is not the same as changing Intune App Protection, so it is not the correct answer in this scenario.

When a question mentions changing a specific control check what that control actually manages and whether tenant level sharing or a CASB is a better fit. Focus on the scope of the control and the location where files are governed.

Private cloud is the correct answer because it assigns compute and storage exclusively for use by a single enterprise.

Private cloud refers to infrastructure that is dedicated to one organization and it can be hosted on premises or by a third party while remaining single tenant. This model gives an enterprise full control over configuration, security and compliance which is why it fits the requirement for exclusive assignment of compute and storage.

Community cloud is shared by several organizations with common concerns such as compliance or mission and it is not exclusive to a single enterprise so it does not match the requirement.

Public cloud delivers services to multiple tenants over the internet and resources are shared across customers which means compute and storage are not exclusively assigned to one enterprise.

Hybrid cloud combines private and public cloud components and while it can include a private portion the presence of public shared resources means it is not exclusively dedicated to a single enterprise in its entirety.

When a question mentions exclusive use or resources for a single enterprise think of dedicated or single tenant deployment models and choose the private option.