ISC2 CC Certification Exam Questions

A regional online merchant called Harbor Lane Retail has reviewed costs and benefits of various security measures and must decide how to handle residual exposures. Which statement best describes the practice of accepting risk?

• ❏ A. Transferring the exposure to another party through insurance or contractual arrangements

• ❏ B. Recognizing that some threats are impractical or too costly to fix and accepting the possible consequences

• ❏ C. Implementing safeguards to remove all possible risks

• ❏ D. Ignoring potential threats and failing to assess impacts

How would you describe a containment plan for handling security incidents in an organization?

• ❏ A. Security Command Center

• ❏ B. A procedure for managing the spread of a natural disaster

• ❏ C. A documented procedure that limits the impact and spread of an information security incident

• ❏ D. A strategy to isolate infected endpoints by disconnecting them from the network

What phrase describes the process of guaranteeing that proposed updates to an IT environment are reviewed authorized and implemented in a controlled way?

• ❏ A. Configuration management

• ❏ B. Binary Authorization

• ❏ C. Change control process

• ❏ D. Identity and Access Management

Which technology is most appropriate for discovering confidential data that has been stored without authorization on workstation hard disks?

• ❏ A. Cloud Armor

• ❏ B. Transport Layer Security

• ❏ C. Cloud Data Loss Prevention

• ❏ D. Cloud IDS

A regional e commerce company needs to ensure its applications and customer records remain reachable during peak shopping events and during incident recovery. Which security principle addresses keeping systems and data accessible when they are required for essential business operations?

• ❏ A. Data confidentiality

• ❏ B. Service availability

• ❏ C. Access control

• ❏ D. Data integrity

Which of the choices below is an example of a physical security control that prevents people from entering a facility without permission?

• ❏ A. Cloud Identity and Access Management

• ❏ B. Mechanical door locks

• ❏ C. Background screening for staff

• ❏ D. Firewall rules in a virtual private cloud

Why would a software startup implement an internal information security management system and what is its primary goal?

• ❏ A. To coordinate the startup’s marketing and customer outreach strategies

• ❏ B. Security Command Center

• ❏ C. To establish a formal program for identifying and mitigating information security risks

• ❏ D. Cloud Storage

A security researcher is running three virtual machines on a personal laptop to examine suspicious programs. What type of hypervisor arrangement are they most likely using to host those virtual machines?

• ❏ A. Docker containers

• ❏ B. Type 1 hypervisor

• ❏ C. Google Kubernetes Engine

• ❏ D. Type 2 hypervisor

A regional lender named Harbor Trust needs to reduce malware infections on corporate laptops and servers without relying on users to change their habits. Which control will most effectively prevent malware infections?

• ❏ A. Enforcing strict network firewall rules

• ❏ B. Implementing endpoint detection and response solutions

• ❏ C. Deploying endpoint anti-malware software

• ❏ D. Regularly applying system and application updates

How would you describe the main purpose of a procedure in an organization’s documentation?

• ❏ A. To set measurable criteria or standards that work must satisfy

• ❏ B. To provide detailed step by step instructions to complete a particular task

• ❏ C. To outline how to ensure adherence to higher level policies and controls

• ❏ D. To establish mandatory rules and specify penalties for failing to comply

All ISC2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

Which of the following measures is an example of an administrative control for a corporate environment?

• ❏ A. Applying firewall rules to block unauthorized network services

• ❏ B. Requiring manager approval before accessing privileged tools

• ❏ C. Deploying CCTV cameras to monitor facility entry points

• ❏ D. Posting directional signage to guide delivery drivers to the loading area

Horizon Tech maintains its compute and storage inside its own company datacenter while it hires a third party to perform backups as part of its disaster recovery plan. How would you best categorize this setup?

• ❏ A. Cloud hosted systems with on site backup retention

• ❏ B. Private cloud with cloud provider backups

• ❏ C. Public cloud services with vendor managed backups

• ❏ D. Private cloud with internally managed backups

A mid sized financial technology company has moved its application development into a platform as a service environment for building and deploying software. What role does the company now fulfill in the cloud service model?

• ❏ A. Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

• ❏ B. Cloud Service Broker

• ❏ C. Cloud Service Consumer (CSC)

• ❏ D. Cloud Service Partner

Which of the listed steps occurs first in a cloud data lifecycle?

• ❏ A. Process data for use

• ❏ B. Create backup copies

• ❏ C. Place data into cloud storage

• ❏ D. Move data into archive storage

Which method allows a company to span its private network across the public internet so that remote users operate as though they are on the internal network?

• ❏ A. Domain Name System Security Extensions

• ❏ B. Virtual local area network

• ❏ C. VPC network peering

• ❏ D. Virtual private network

At a vocational college learners are given permission to access web course materials according to which classes they are registered in. Which access control approach does this situation represent?

• ❏ A. Mandatory Access Control MAC

• ❏ B. Role Based Access Control RBAC

• ❏ C. Cloud Identity and Access Management

• ❏ D. Attribute Based Access Control ABAC

Which practice most effectively reduces the complexity that undermines an organization’s security posture?

• ❏ A. Increase the number of security controls

• ❏ B. Continuously revise and update security configurations

• ❏ C. Standardize and simplify security policies and procedures

• ❏ D. Centralize identity management and enforce least privilege with IAM

When launching an organizationwide security awareness initiative what is the proper first action to get staff engaged with security topics?

• ❏ A. Develop workforce proficiency in specific security tasks

• ❏ B. Launch a campaign to draw attention to security risks

• ❏ C. Concentrate only on advanced security procedures

• ❏ D. Enhance comprehension of security concepts and their practical use

A regional fintech called Riverbank Labs is reviewing web service styles for their new platform and they want to know which statement about REST and SOAP is false?

• ❏ A. REST typically communicates using the HTTP protocol

• ❏ B. REST supports multiple data formats such as XML JSON and plain text

• ❏ C. SOAP cannot be carried over the FTP protocol

• ❏ D. SOAP encapsulates its payload inside a SOAP envelope

When comparing cloud vendors for a software startup, which factor is most closely tied to the risk of becoming dependent on a single provider?

• ❏ A. Service level agreements

• ❏ B. Interoperability between platforms

• ❏ C. Difficulty of migrating data and workloads

• ❏ D. Portability of workloads and data

All ISC2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

What is the primary goal of an organization’s disaster recovery plan and what outcome should it chiefly deliver?

• ❏ A. Ensure essential business functions can be resumed after a disruption

• ❏ B. Limit the amount of data lost during an outage

• ❏ C. Demonstrate compliance with applicable laws and industry rules

• ❏ D. Prevent security incidents from happening

Which subjects are usually taught in an organization’s security awareness training program?

• ❏ A. Client service practices, productivity software training, business analytics methods and financial reporting procedures

• ❏ B. Phishing awareness, password hygiene, data handling practices, mobile device protection and social engineering awareness

• ❏ C. Identity and access management, firewall configuration, encryption key rotation, logging and monitoring and backup policies

• ❏ D. Facility access control, occupational safety procedures, first aid training and emergency evacuation processes

A digital services firm runs a containerized application in the cloud and wants the most secure method for user authentication. Which authentication approach provides the strongest protection?

• ❏ A. Using a personal VPN client

• ❏ B. Sharing a single set of account credentials among multiple users

• ❏ C. Using Identity Aware Proxy

• ❏ D. Using multi factor authentication

Which core technology serves as the principal enabler of cloud platforms and lets providers operate multiple isolated workloads on the same physical machines?

• ❏ A. Multitenancy

• ❏ B. Virtualization

• ❏ C. Containerization

• ❏ D. Resource pooling

What is the main role of a security information and event management solution within a corporate IT environment?

• ❏ A. Encrypting sensitive data during transit

• ❏ B. Google Cloud Security Command Center

• ❏ C. Providing continuous monitoring and alerting for security incidents

• ❏ D. Implementing identity and access management controls

Which kind of threat most often puts a company’s information security at risk?

• ❏ A. Insider threats

• ❏ B. Severe weather and physical catastrophes

• ❏ C. Cyber attacks

• ❏ D. Human mistakes and accidental disclosures

A regional fintech firm named Meridian Analytics wants to enhance its server security posture. What is the main objective of hardening a server in information security?

• ❏ A. Google Cloud Armor

• ❏ B. To strengthen physical safeguards around the server hardware

• ❏ C. To reduce operational complexity and make routine maintenance easier

• ❏ D. To decrease the system’s attack surface by applying secure configurations and removing unnecessary services

Which term best describes a staff member who holds valid system privileges but purposely exploits those privileges for unauthorized activities?

• ❏ A. Compromised credentials

• ❏ B. Advanced persistent threat

• ❏ C. Malicious insider

• ❏ D. Grey hat hacker

A managed cloud vendor has published a SOC 2 Type II attestation for its hosted services. Which cloud consideration is this most directly related to?

• ❏ A. Compliance Management

• ❏ B. Data Security

• ❏ C. Auditability

• ❏ D. Governance

When two municipal departments prepare a Memorandum of Understanding or a Memorandum of Agreement who is normally expected to draft the initial text?

• ❏ A. An external facilitator or retained counsel

• ❏ B. Both organizations that will sign the document

• ❏ C. The legal team of one signatory organization

• ❏ D. The party that expects the greatest benefit from the agreement

What does a ‘highly restricted’ data classification indicate about the potential consequences if that information is disclosed?

• ❏ A. Exposure could result in regulatory penalties or heavy financial losses

• ❏ B. Exposure could cause a temporary loss of competitive advantage

• ❏ C. Exposure could lead to loss of life or extensive physical and property damage

• ❏ D. Exposure could cause short lived interruptions to normal services

Which cloud deployment pattern will deliver the highest resilience for a company’s business continuity and disaster recovery strategy?

• ❏ A. Private cloud

• ❏ B. Public cloud

• ❏ C. Community cloud

• ❏ D. Hybrid cloud

At the end of which phase of the software development lifecycle will the team possess formal requirement specifications that developers can use to build the application?

• ❏ A. System design

• ❏ B. Requirements discovery and feasibility study

• ❏ C. Verification and testing

• ❏ D. Requirements analysis

A regional delivery company named Ridgeway Express is evaluating security at its neighborhood sorting hub and wants to know the primary purpose of its installed video surveillance systems?

• ❏ A. Record footage to support insurance claims

• ❏ B. Provide operational analytics such as foot traffic counts

• ❏ C. Serve as a visible crime deterrent while recording incidents as evidence

• ❏ D. Log employee attendance for payroll purposes

In which networking model are the control plane decisions about where traffic is inspected or routed separated from the devices that actually forward the packets?

• ❏ A. Cloud VPN

• ❏ B. Storage area network

• ❏ C. Software defined networking

• ❏ D. Virtual LAN

The correct option is Recognizing that some threats are impractical or too costly to fix and accepting the possible consequences.

This choice describes risk acceptance because the organization acknowledges residual exposure after evaluating costs and benefits and then formally decides to live with the possible consequences. Risk acceptance is a deliberate management decision that follows assessment and analysis and it is typically documented and monitored rather than being an arbitrary choice.

Transferring the exposure to another party through insurance or contractual arrangements is incorrect because that describes risk transference. Transference shifts financial or legal responsibility but does not mean the organization has accepted the exposure without action.

Implementing safeguards to remove all possible risks is incorrect because removing all risk is usually impossible. That option describes attempts at mitigation or avoidance rather than the conscious decision to accept residual risk.

Ignoring potential threats and failing to assess impacts is incorrect because acceptance requires assessment and an informed decision. Ignoring threats is negligent and not a valid risk response.

When a choice mentions a formal decision to live with a documented residual exposure pick acceptance and remember to look for management approval or documentation clues in the wording.

The correct option is A documented procedure that limits the impact and spread of an information security incident.

A containment plan is exactly a documented procedure that limits the impact and spread of an information security incident because it defines roles, decision points, and technical steps to prevent further compromise while allowing investigation and recovery to proceed.

A good documented procedure will include short term containment actions, longer term controls, communication and escalation paths, and guidance for preserving forensic evidence so that eradication and recovery can follow in a controlled way.

Security Command Center is incorrect because it names a product or tool rather than describing a procedural plan for responding to incidents. A product can support containment but it does not itself define the documented steps and policies that a containment plan requires.

A procedure for managing the spread of a natural disaster is incorrect because it refers to physical disaster management and not to limiting the impact and spread of an information security incident. Containment plans focus on cyber incidents and the technical and procedural controls needed to contain them.

A strategy to isolate infected endpoints by disconnecting them from the network is incorrect because it describes one possible containment action but it is too narrow to be the full plan. Disconnecting endpoints may be part of containment, but a complete containment plan is documented, covers multiple scenarios, and balances containment with evidence preservation and business continuity.

When you see answers that name a tool or a single action favor the choice that describes a formal and documented process. Containment plans are procedures that define roles, steps, and how to preserve evidence while limiting impact.

Change control process is correct.

A Change control process is the formal procedure used to ensure proposed updates to an IT environment are reviewed, authorized, and implemented in a controlled way.

A typical Change control process includes submitting change requests, assessing impact and risk, obtaining approvals, testing and scheduling the change, performing the implementation, and conducting a post implementation review to maintain traceability and reduce operational risk.

Configuration management is related because it records and maintains the baseline of system components and settings, but it does not by itself describe the formal review and authorization workflow for proposed updates.

Binary Authorization is a specific policy enforcement mechanism for container image signing and deployment controls, and it does not represent the broader organizational process of reviewing, approving, and managing changes across an IT environment.

Identity and Access Management deals with identities and permissions to control who can perform actions, but it does not define the controlled review, approval, testing, scheduling, and post implementation steps that make up a change control process.

Look for answer choices that describe a formal sequence of actions such as reviewed, authorized, and implemented when the question asks about controlling updates to an IT environment.

Cloud Data Loss Prevention is the correct option for discovering confidential data that has been stored without authorization on workstation hard disks.

Cloud Data Loss Prevention is designed to find and classify sensitive information in files and stored data and it can scan content at rest through connectors or APIs. It uses pattern matching dictionaries and machine learning to detect personal data credentials and other confidential items and it can also help redact or transform data to support remediation when unauthorized storage is found.

Cloud Armor protects applications from DDoS attacks and provides web application firewall features. It focuses on filtering and blocking malicious traffic and it does not perform content discovery or file system scanning on disks.

Transport Layer Security provides encryption and integrity for data while it is transmitted across networks. It secures communication channels and prevents eavesdropping but it does not locate or classify confidential data at rest on workstation drives.

Cloud IDS monitors network traffic to detect intrusions and anomalous behavior. It analyzes packets and flows for threats and it is not intended to scan file contents or discover sensitive data stored on disk.

When a question asks about discovering or classifying sensitive data at rest choose a data loss prevention or data classification service rather than network or transport protections.

The correct answer is Service availability.

Service availability is the security principle that ensures systems and data remain accessible and usable when required for essential business operations. It covers architectural and operational controls such as redundancy, load balancing, autoscaling, failover, backups, and tested disaster recovery procedures that keep applications reachable during peak shopping events and during incident recovery.

Service availability is one of the three pillars of the CIA triad along with Data confidentiality and Data integrity. This question focuses on keeping services reachable and operational rather than on preventing disclosure or ensuring data correctness.

Data confidentiality is about protecting information from unauthorized access. It is important for customer records but it does not by itself ensure that systems remain reachable under high load or during recovery.

Access control concerns who may access resources and what actions they may perform. Access control helps enforce confidentiality and accountability but it does not guarantee availability during peak events or after incidents.

Data integrity ensures the accuracy and consistency of information over its lifecycle. It matters for correct transactions and records but it does not address system reachability or uptime under stress.

When a scenario mentions keeping systems or data reachable, think availability and map the scenario to operational controls like redundancy, failover, and recovery testing.

The correct answer is Mechanical door locks.

Mechanical door locks are a physical access control that directly prevents people from entering a facility without permission by creating a tangible barrier that must be unlocked with a key or credential. They are implemented at entrances and other points of access and are a primary example of a physical security control.

Cloud Identity and Access Management is incorrect because it is an identity and access management solution for digital resources and cloud services rather than a physical barrier that stops people from walking into a building.

Background screening for staff is incorrect because it is an administrative control used to vet personnel and reduce insider risk and it does not physically prevent unauthorized individuals from entering a facility on its own.

Firewall rules in a virtual private cloud are incorrect because they are network or technical controls that filter traffic to and from virtual networks and they do not provide a physical means to block people from entering a site.

Focus on whether the control is a tangible barrier when the question asks about physical security. If the item deals with identities or network traffic then it is likely administrative or technical rather than physical.

To establish a formal program for identifying and mitigating information security risks is correct because an internal information security management system creates an organized and repeatable framework for managing information security across the startup.

An ISMS sets out documented policies, procedures, roles and controls for assessing risk, selecting mitigations and tracking improvements over time. It helps ensure the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information and it supports compliance and management oversight in a way that ad hoc efforts cannot.

To coordinate the startup’s marketing and customer outreach strategies is wrong because marketing and outreach focus on business growth and customer engagement and not on establishing formal processes to identify and treat information security risks.

Security Command Center is incorrect because a security command center is typically an operational capability or tool for monitoring and responding to incidents and not the broader organizational program of policies, processes and continual improvement that an ISMS provides.

Cloud Storage is incorrect because cloud storage is a specific service for storing data and not a management system that defines governance, risk assessment and risk treatment across the organization.

Scan choices for wording that indicates a systematic and ongoing program or management system rather than a single tool or business function. The correct answer usually describes policies, risk assessment and continual improvement.

The correct option is Type 2 hypervisor.

A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host operating system so it is the common choice for a researcher using a personal laptop to run multiple virtual machines. This arrangement lets the researcher install a desktop OS and then run guest operating systems inside VMs for safe analysis of suspicious programs while still using familiar host tools and drivers.

Docker containers are incorrect because containers share the host kernel and are not full virtual machines. Containers isolate applications but do not provide separate guest operating systems the way a hypervisor does, so they do not match the scenario of running three VMs on a laptop.

Type 1 hypervisor is incorrect because a Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on bare metal. That architecture is common in servers and datacenters and is less likely to be used on a personal laptop where a host OS is present.

Google Kubernetes Engine is incorrect because it is a managed, cloud hosted container orchestration service. It manages containers across clusters in the cloud and is not a local hypervisor for hosting virtual machines on a personal laptop.

When a question mentions a personal laptop or a host operating system think Type 2 hypervisor and when it mentions bare metal or datacenter hardware think Type 1.

The correct option is Deploying endpoint anti-malware software.

Deploying endpoint anti-malware software directly blocks, quarantines, and removes malicious files and processes on laptops and servers in real time. It uses signature based scanning and behavioral heuristics and it can be centrally managed so updates and policy enforcement do not rely on users changing their habits. For reducing infections without depending on user behavior this endpoint level prevention is the most effective control.

Enforcing strict network firewall rules is useful for limiting network traffic and reducing some network based threats but it cannot reliably stop malware that arrives on removable media or through user downloads or encrypted channels and it does not provide file and process level blocking on the endpoint.

Implementing endpoint detection and response solutions improves visibility and enables rapid detection, investigation, and containment after suspicious activity is observed but EDR is primarily focused on detection and response rather than the immediate prevention that anti-malware provides. Many EDR products augment prevention but the exam answer favors direct endpoint anti malware for preventing infections.

Regularly applying system and application updates reduces attack surface and prevents exploitation of known vulnerabilities but patching alone will not reliably stop malware that users download or open from attachments and it requires time and operational effort to deploy across all devices.

When a question stresses preventing infections without relying on users choose controls that provide real time, endpoint level blocking rather than only network filtering or post detection response.

To provide detailed step by step instructions to complete a particular task is the correct option.

Procedures are written to show the exact sequence of actions that must be performed to complete a task. They translate higher level direction into concrete steps, identify responsibilities, list required inputs and outputs, and describe the expected outcome. For these reasons a procedure is the how to document that implements policies and standards by describing the specific steps to follow.

To set measurable criteria or standards that work must satisfy is incorrect because that text describes a standard rather than a procedure. Standards define the criteria or technical baselines that solutions must meet and they do not give the step by step instructions for performing work.

To outline how to ensure adherence to higher level policies and controls is incorrect because that wording refers to governance, compliance processes, or control frameworks rather than the detailed steps of a procedure. A procedure may support compliance but the phrase is too high level to be a procedure itself.

To establish mandatory rules and specify penalties for failing to comply is incorrect because that describes policy enforcement and sanctions. Procedures focus on how to perform tasks and rarely specify disciplinary measures.

When choosing between policy, standard, and procedure look for the level of detail. Procedures describe step by step actions, standards set measurable requirements, and policies state high level rules.

Requiring manager approval before accessing privileged tools is the correct answer.

Requiring manager approval before accessing privileged tools is an administrative control because it relies on policies and procedures that govern who may obtain privileged access and under what conditions. This measure involves people and management processes and it enforces accountability and separation of duties through approvals and oversight.

Applying firewall rules to block unauthorized network services is incorrect because it is a technical control that is implemented in hardware or software to enforce security at the network layer rather than through management policies or approval workflows.

Deploying CCTV cameras to monitor facility entry points is incorrect because it is a physical control that protects and monitors access to facilities and does not establish policy driven procedures for granting privileged system access.

Posting directional signage to guide delivery drivers to the loading area is incorrect because it is an operational or physical control that aids movement and logistics rather than a policy based control that governs user privileges.

When choosing between administrative, technical, and physical controls look for key words that signal policy or procedure driven measures such as approval, policy, or training. Technical controls will mention hardware or software and physical controls will mention devices or barriers

The correct option is Private cloud with cloud provider backups.

This choice is correct because Horizon Tech keeps its compute and storage inside its own company datacenter, which matches the ownership and control characteristics of a private cloud, and it hires a third party to perform backups, which means the backup function is managed by an external cloud provider rather than by internal staff.

Cloud hosted systems with on site backup retention is incorrect because that option implies the primary systems are hosted in the cloud rather than on the company premises, and it also implies backups are kept on site rather than outsourced to a third party.

Public cloud services with vendor managed backups is incorrect because public cloud services would mean the provider hosts the compute and storage, whereas Horizon Tech hosts those resources inside its own datacenter.

Private cloud with internally managed backups is incorrect because this option assumes backups are handled by the organization itself, but in the scenario the backups are performed by an external third party.

When you see questions about deployment models focus on who owns and operates the primary infrastructure and who manages recovery functions. If the systems are on premises but backups are outsourced then pick a private model with provider managed backups and not an option that places the primary systems in the public cloud.

The correct option is Cloud Service Consumer (CSC).

By moving application development into a platform as a service environment the company is acting as a Cloud Service Consumer (CSC) because it uses a managed platform and runtime provided by another organization to build and deploy its software. The firm consumes the platform resources and development services rather than supplying or operating the underlying cloud platform.

Cloud Service Provider (CSP) is incorrect because a provider is the organization that supplies and manages the cloud infrastructure or platform. The scenario describes the company using a PaaS offering rather than providing that platform to others.

Cloud Service Broker is incorrect because a broker acts as an intermediary that aggregates or manages services between providers and consumers. The company is directly consuming the PaaS for its development work and is not performing brokerage functions.

Cloud Service Partner is incorrect because a partner usually refers to a third party that delivers solutions or professional services around cloud offerings. That label does not fit a company that has simply moved its development into a PaaS environment.

Focus on who manages the platform and who uses it and if the organization is using a managed PaaS to build or host applications it is a consumer rather than a provider or broker.

The correct option is Place data into cloud storage.

Placing data into cloud storage is the initial ingestion and storage phase in a typical cloud data lifecycle. Data must be captured and placed into a storage location before it can be processed or protected and so ingestion into storage logically comes first.

Process data for use is incorrect because processing assumes the data has already been ingested and stored and therefore does not occur first.

Create backup copies is incorrect because backups are a protective action taken after the data exists in storage and are not the initial ingestion step.

Move data into archive storage is incorrect because archiving is a later lifecycle stage intended for long term retention and typically follows initial storage and primary use.

When you see lifecycle questions think about the logical order. The ingestion or storage step normally comes first and then you order actions by use, protection, and long term retention.

Virtual private network is correct because it spans a private network across the public internet so that remote users operate as though they are on the internal network.

A Virtual private network or VPN accomplishes this by creating an encrypted tunnel between the remote device and the corporate network and by authenticating the user or device. The tunnel protects data in transit and allows assignment of internal addressing or routing so remote endpoints can access internal resources securely.

Domain Name System Security Extensions is incorrect because DNSSEC provides integrity and origin authentication for DNS data. It does not provide a secure tunnel or remote access to an internal network.

Virtual local area network is incorrect because a VLAN segments traffic within a local or switched network. It does not span the public internet to connect remote users to an internal network.

VPC network peering is incorrect because peering links cloud virtual private clouds or networks together for internal cloud traffic. It is not a mechanism for remote users on the public internet to appear as if they are on an internal corporate network.

When a question describes remote users accessing internal resources over the public internet think of tunneling and encryption which usually indicates a VPN.

The correct option is Role Based Access Control RBAC.

In the college scenario learners are granted access to course materials based on the classes they are registered in and that is a direct mapping to roles. Under RBAC permissions are assigned to roles and users gain those permissions by being assigned the matching role, which matches the idea of a student role for a class.

Mandatory Access Control MAC is incorrect because MAC enforces access based on system labels and classification levels rather than on user membership in classes or roles, and it is typically used in high assurance environments rather than course enrollment scenarios.

Cloud Identity and Access Management is incorrect because that term refers to cloud vendor services for managing identities and permissions and not to a specific access control model. The scenario is about how access decisions are made and not about a particular cloud provider feature.

Attribute Based Access Control ABAC is incorrect because ABAC evaluates attributes of users, resources, and the environment to make decisions. While ABAC can express complex rules, the described situation is most naturally represented by role membership through class registration which is the hallmark of RBAC.

When a question mentions access granted by enrollment, group membership, or job function look for RBAC as the likely answer because roles map directly to those concepts.

Standardize and simplify security policies and procedures is correct.

Standardizing and simplifying policies and procedures reduces variability and inconsistency across the environment. When rules are clear and uniform teams can implement controls more consistently and automation becomes practical which lowers the chance of misconfiguration and gaps that attackers can exploit.

Simpler and standardized processes also make auditing and training easier because there are fewer special cases to review and fewer exceptions to manage. This clarity supports faster incident response and clearer ownership which improves overall security posture.

Increase the number of security controls is incorrect because adding controls without consolidation usually increases complexity and operational overhead. More controls can create more configuration points and dependencies that are hard to manage and that can actually weaken security.

Continuously revise and update security configurations is incorrect in this context because frequent changes alone do not reduce complexity. Continuous updates are valuable for patching and hardening but without standardization they can introduce drift and inconsistency that undermine security.

Centralize identity management and enforce least privilege with IAM is incorrect as the single best answer because IAM centralization is an important control but it addresses identity scope specifically. It does not by itself simplify all policies and procedures across different technologies and processes and it can introduce complexity if it is not part of a broader standardization effort.

Focus on choices that reduce variability and enable automation. Emphasize standardization and simplicity when the question asks about lowering complexity rather than just adding controls.

The correct option is Launch a campaign to draw attention to security risks.

Launch a campaign to draw attention to security risks is the right first action because it creates broad awareness and motivates the entire workforce to care about security. A campaign establishes leadership support and communicates simple, organizationwide behaviors that set the stage for later, more focused training and skill development. Starting with a campaign makes subsequent efforts to build proficiency and comprehension more effective because people are already engaged and receptive.

Develop workforce proficiency in specific security tasks is not the best first action because task level training assumes people already understand why the tasks matter and are motivated to change their behavior. Starting with detailed skills can leave many staff unengaged and reduce overall program reach.

Concentrate only on advanced security procedures is wrong because advanced procedures are appropriate for specialists and not for an organizationwide launch. Focusing only on advanced topics will alienate most employees and will not build the broad baseline awareness that is needed first.

Enhance comprehension of security concepts and their practical use is not the immediate first action because comprehension and practice are typically the next steps after awareness is established. Deepening understanding is important but it follows an initial campaign that creates interest and basic behavior change.

Look for answers that emphasize starting with broad awareness and motivation when a question asks about the first step in a program. The word first often signals that foundational engagement is required.

The correct answer is SOAP cannot be carried over the FTP protocol.

The statement SOAP cannot be carried over the FTP protocol is false because SOAP is a transport independent XML messaging protocol that defines an envelope and message structure. The SOAP envelope can be placed into messages transported by HTTP SMTP FTP or other bindings so HTTP is the most common transport but it is not the only option.

REST typically communicates using the HTTP protocol is not the false statement because REST is an architectural style that commonly maps to HTTP verbs and URIs. In practice most RESTful APIs use HTTP methods such as GET POST PUT and DELETE and so that statement is accurate.

REST supports multiple data formats such as XML JSON and plain text is not the false statement because REST relies on content negotiation and media types. REST APIs commonly exchange JSON XML or plain text and the client and server use headers to agree the format.

SOAP encapsulates its payload inside a SOAP envelope is not the false statement because a SOAP message is an XML document that must include an Envelope element which contains a Body with the application payload and an optional Header. That envelope structure is a defining feature of SOAP.

When asked which statement is false look for claims that contradict the protocol design. Remember SOAP is transport independent and REST commonly maps to HTTP and uses content negotiation for formats.

Portability of workloads and data is the correct option.

Portability of workloads and data is most directly tied to vendor lock in because it measures how easily a startup can move applications and data from one cloud provider to another. High portability means fewer technical obstacles to migration and a lower risk of becoming dependent on a single provider, while low portability creates structural barriers that lead to lock in.

Service level agreements are about contractual promises for availability and support and they affect expectations and remedies, but they do not by themselves determine how easy it is to move workloads between providers. That is why Service level agreements is not the best answer.

Interoperability between platforms relates to how well different systems can work together and exchange data, and interoperability can reduce lock in in some cases. However interoperability focuses on interaction rather than the ease of relocating entire workloads and datasets, so it is not as closely tied to the dependency risk as portability.

Difficulty of migrating data and workloads describes a symptom rather than the root factor. Migration difficulty is often the result of poor portability. The question asks which factor is most closely tied to becoming dependent on a single provider, and that root factor is Portability of workloads and data, not the downstream difficulty.

When a question asks about vendor lock in look for the option that directly addresses the ability to move applications and data. Portability is the key concept to spot.

All ISC2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

The correct answer is Ensure essential business functions can be resumed after a disruption.

A disaster recovery plan is designed to restore critical operations and services so the organization can continue to meet its mission and obligations. The plan sets recovery objectives such as recovery time objectives and recovery point objectives and documents the procedures, roles, and resources needed to bring systems and processes back into operation. The chief outcome is operational continuity and the resumption of essential business functions rather than completing any single technical task.

Limit the amount of data lost during an outage is an important objective that is addressed by backups and recovery point objectives. It is a component of recovery rather than the primary goal of the disaster recovery plan.

Demonstrate compliance with applicable laws and industry rules can be a requirement and a useful byproduct of having documented processes. Compliance itself is not the main purpose of disaster recovery planning, which focuses on restoring operations after a disruption.

Prevent security incidents from happening is a goal of security and risk mitigation programs. Disaster recovery assumes a disruptive event has occurred and concentrates on restoring services and reducing impact rather than preventing incidents.

When you see questions about disaster recovery focus on the plan’s primary purpose which is restoring essential operations and not on related objectives like backups or regulatory proof.

The correct answer is Phishing awareness, password hygiene, data handling practices, mobile device protection and social engineering awareness.

These topics form the core of an organization wide security awareness program because they teach everyday employees how to recognize and respond to common threats. Training in phishing awareness helps staff spot malicious emails and links. Instruction on password hygiene encourages creation and management of strong credentials. Guidance on data handling practices shows how to protect sensitive information. Advice about mobile device protection reduces risk from lost or compromised devices. Education on social engineering awareness helps people understand manipulative tactics attackers use.

Client service practices, productivity software training, business analytics methods and financial reporting procedures is incorrect because it lists business skills and role specific training rather than security awareness topics. Those items improve job performance but they do not teach the security behaviors that reduce cyber risk.

Identity and access management, firewall configuration, encryption key rotation, logging and monitoring and backup policies is incorrect because these are technical controls and operational tasks. They belong in IT and security operations training rather than in broad awareness courses for all employees.

Facility access control, occupational safety procedures, first aid training and emergency evacuation processes is incorrect because those focus on physical safety and facility management. They may be part of physical security or safety training but they are not central to information security awareness about digital threats.

When answering, look for options that list everyday behaviors like phishing and password practices because those are classic security awareness topics while configuration tasks point to IT operations.

The correct answer is Using multi factor authentication.

Using multi factor authentication requires users to present at least two independent forms of verification such as a password combined with a hardware token or a biometric. This approach greatly reduces the risk that a compromised password alone will allow access and so it provides the strongest protection for user authentication to a cloud hosted containerized application.

Using multi factor authentication can be enforced per user through identity providers and cloud IAM which preserves accountability and enables targeted revocation. It also defends against common attacks like phishing and credential stuffing which makes it the most robust choice here.

Using a personal VPN client can protect network traffic and restrict access to a private network but it does not by itself provide strong per user authentication. A VPN can be bypassed or misused if credentials or the endpoint are compromised.

Sharing a single set of account credentials among multiple users removes individual accountability and prevents per user authentication and revocation. It also makes it impossible to enforce individualized second factors and increases the blast radius of a credential compromise.

Using Identity Aware Proxy adds an access control layer that evaluates identity and context but it is not a substitute for requiring multiple authentication factors. IAP is typically used together with multi factor authentication rather than replacing it.

When a question asks for the strongest authentication choose the option that combines something a user knows with something a user has or is. Favor per user controls and revocation and remember that multi factor authentication provides that capability.

Virtualization is correct because it is the core technology that lets cloud providers operate multiple isolated workloads on the same physical machines.

Virtualization abstracts physical hardware using a hypervisor so that each virtual machine has its own virtual hardware and operating system. This abstraction provides strong isolation and independent allocation of CPU memory and storage, and it allows providers to run different operating systems on the same host while keeping workloads separated.

Multitenancy is incorrect because it describes a cloud design and business model where multiple customers share the same infrastructure. It is an important characteristic of cloud services and it is often enabled by Virtualization and other technologies, but it is not the underlying enabling technology itself.

Containerization is incorrect because containers provide process level isolation by sharing the host kernel with namespaces and control groups. Containers increase density and deployment speed, and they are complementary to Virtualization, but they do not by themselves create full hardware level isolation across multiple full operating system instances.

Resource pooling is incorrect because it is a cloud characteristic that describes sharing and dynamic allocation of resources across many customers. It is enabled by technologies such as Virtualization and management software, but it is an architectural principle rather than the specific core technology that creates isolated workloads.

When a question mentions running multiple isolated workloads or multiple operating systems on the same physical hardware look for virtualization as the enabling technology rather than higher level concepts like multitenancy or resource pooling.

The correct option is Providing continuous monitoring and alerting for security incidents.

A security information and event management solution performs centralized collection and correlation of logs and events from across the environment to enable continuous monitoring and alerting for security incidents. It detects suspicious behavior, prioritizes events, and generates alerts so teams can investigate and respond. It also supports incident investigation and reporting for compliance and forensic purposes.

Encrypting sensitive data during transit is not the primary role of a SIEM. Encryption in transit is provided by network and application level controls such as TLS and VPNs and those functions are separate from log collection and event correlation.

Google Cloud Security Command Center is a specific cloud vendor product and not a generic description of a SIEM role. It may provide security visibility for Google Cloud but the question asks for the main role of a SIEM and not a product name.

Implementing identity and access management controls is a function of IAM systems. A SIEM can monitor IAM activity and alert on suspicious access, but it does not itself implement access control policies.

When a choice mentions continuous monitoring, logging, correlation, or real time alerts think SIEM. Eliminate options that describe specific controls or product names when the question asks about a role.

The correct option is Cyber attacks.

Cyber attacks most often put a company’s information security at risk because they are widespread, automated, and they target networks, applications, and people. Modern cyber attacks include phishing, ransomware, malware, credential theft, and supply chain compromises and industry breach reports show that these types of attacks account for the majority of reported incidents and data breaches.

Attackers can scale their activity and reuse tools and vulnerabilities across many organizations at once which increases both frequency and impact compared with other threat types.

Insider threats can cause serious breaches because insiders often have access to sensitive systems and data, but they are generally less common than external cyber attacks according to most breach studies.

Severe weather and physical catastrophes can disrupt operations and damage infrastructure, but they are not the most frequent cause of information security incidents and they rarely result in the same volume of data compromise as cyber attacks.

Human mistakes and accidental disclosures are a frequent source of incidents such as misconfigurations and unintended data exposure. Many of these mistakes are then exploited by cyber attackers, so while human error is important it often contributes to or enables cyber attacks rather than replacing them as the primary threat.

When a question asks which threat most often endangers information security focus on reported frequency and impact in breach studies and favor Cyber attacks when it is an option.

The correct answer is To decrease the system’s attack surface by applying secure configurations and removing unnecessary services.

Server hardening is about reducing the number of potential vulnerabilities that an attacker can exploit. It involves applying secure configuration settings, removing or disabling unnecessary services and software, installing patches, and enforcing strong access controls.

These practices directly reduce the attack surface and limit the pathways an attacker can use to gain access or escalate privileges. The focus is on secure configurations and service reduction rather than physical protections or simplifying operations.

Google Cloud Armor is a cloud based service that helps defend against distributed denial of service attacks and provides web application firewall features, and it is not the definition of server hardening.

To strengthen physical safeguards around the server hardware describes physical security measures. Physical security is important but it is not the main objective of server hardening which focuses on software configuration and reducing exposed services.

To reduce operational complexity and make routine maintenance easier is not correct because hardening often increases administrative controls and oversight. The primary goal is improved security by shrinking the attack surface and enforcing secure settings.

When answering, look for wording about reducing the attack surface or applying secure configurations and treat physical security or convenience as secondary concerns.

The correct answer is Malicious insider.

Malicious insider refers to a staff member who has legitimate system privileges and intentionally exploits those privileges to perform unauthorized activities or cause harm. The emphasis is on the combination of authorized access and deliberate malicious intent which distinguishes this actor from accidental or negligent users.

Compromised credentials describes credentials that have been stolen or used by an unauthorized party and does not imply a staff member who knowingly abuses valid privileges.

Advanced persistent threat typically denotes a sustained and targeted external attack campaign by organized groups and it does not describe an internal employee misusing their legitimate access.

Grey hat hacker refers to an external actor who may break rules sometimes for perceived benefit and sometimes without malicious intent and it does not capture the concept of a trusted staff member deliberately abusing their privileges.

Look for key phrases that pair authorized access with intentional misuse to identify a malicious insider.

The correct answer is Auditability.

A SOC 2 Type II attestation is an independent auditor report that evaluates a service organization�s controls and their operating effectiveness over time and it therefore provides documented evidence used by auditors and customers. That makes the attestation primarily about Auditability because it demonstrates the ability to verify controls and the evidence needed for audits.

Compliance Management is related because SOC 2 reports help organizations demonstrate compliance with certain requirements but compliance management is a broader ongoing program of policies and processes rather than the direct purpose of the attestation.

Data Security is also connected since SOC 2 includes security criteria among its trust service categories but the attestation itself focuses on proving control effectiveness and providing audit evidence rather than implementing specific technical data security measures.

Governance involves the organization�s overall leadership oversight and decision making and it is not what a SOC 2 Type II attestation most directly addresses. The report documents controls and their operation for audit purposes more than it documents governance structures.

When you see a SOC report mentioned think about independent verification and evidence for auditors and pick the choice that emphasizes auditability.

The correct answer is Both organizations that will sign the document.

Both organizations that will sign the document are normally expected to prepare or exchange an initial draft because a Memorandum of Understanding or a Memorandum of Agreement records mutual commitments and responsibilities. Joint drafting helps ensure that the language accurately reflects shared objectives and clarifies roles and resource commitments before either party gives formal approval.

Both organizations that will sign the document often collaborate by trading drafts and negotiating wording. Even when one party prepares the first version for convenience that document is treated as a starting point and will be revised by the other signatory and by legal advisors so the final text is a negotiated and mutually acceptable product.

An external facilitator or retained counsel may assist the parties by advising on structure or drafting technical language in complex cases but they are not normally expected to originate the initial text. Their role is typically advisory or facilitative while the signatory organizations remain responsible for the substance and approval.

The legal team of one signatory organization can draft a proposed version and will review legal terms but it is not the normal expectation that only one side prepares the agreement. Relying solely on one organization s legal team risks biased wording and it still requires negotiation to reach a mutually acceptable final agreement.

The party that expects the greatest benefit from the agreement is not typically expected to draft the memorandum. Allowing a single beneficiary to draft the document would undermine collaboration and fairness. Municipal MOUs and MOAs are intended to be jointly developed so that each party s interests and obligations are balanced.

When a question asks who prepares collaborative agreements choose the option that emphasizes joint or mutual responsibility rather than a single party or an external actor.

All ISC2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

The correct answer is Exposure could lead to loss of life or extensive physical and property damage.

A “highly restricted” classification denotes the highest level of sensitivity because unauthorized disclosure could produce catastrophic real world consequences. This classification applies to information that, if exposed, can directly endanger human life or cause widespread physical or property damage, and it therefore requires the strongest protections and strict access controls.

Exposure could result in regulatory penalties or heavy financial losses is incorrect because regulatory and financial impacts are serious but they do not imply the immediate risk to life or large scale physical destruction that defines a highly restricted category. Such impacts normally map to high or confidential tiers rather than the highest tier.

Exposure could cause a temporary loss of competitive advantage is incorrect because loss of competitive position is a business impact that affects market standing and revenue potential but not physical safety. That scenario is handled by lower sensitivity levels focused on confidentiality rather than safety.

Exposure could cause short lived interruptions to normal services is incorrect because short lived service interruptions are availability issues with limited duration and scope. They do not rise to the level of catastrophic physical harm that warrants a highly restricted designation.

When classifying information focus on the real world impact. If an option mentions potential for loss of life or widespread physical damage treat it as the highest sensitivity and choose that option.

The correct option is Hybrid cloud.

A Hybrid cloud architecture allows critical systems and sensitive data to remain under direct control while replicating workloads to multiple public cloud regions or to a secondary private site. That combination gives the business both local control and cloud scale which improves resilience for business continuity and disaster recovery.

By keeping primary control on premises and using public cloud regions or a secondary site for failover, a Hybrid cloud design enables faster failover, workload portability, and avoidance of a single provider or single location failure. Those capabilities help meet stricter recovery time and recovery point objectives.

Private cloud is incorrect because a private cloud is resilient only when it is engineered across multiple data centers and networks. Building that geographic and provider diversity solely in a private environment is often more costly and complex than using a hybrid approach.

Public cloud is incorrect because relying on a single public cloud provider can create a single provider dependency and may not satisfy all compliance or connectivity requirements for every workload. The public cloud alone may be highly resilient, but it does not by itself offer the mixed control and alternative failover paths of a hybrid model.

Community cloud is incorrect because it is shared among organizations with common needs and is not primarily designed to provide maximum resilience across diverse providers or broad geographic regions. That shared focus makes it less likely to deliver the highest level of business continuity compared with a hybrid design.

When the question asks about the highest resilience think about geographic and provider diversity and mixed control. Hybrid options often win because they combine on premises control with multi region cloud failover.

Requirements analysis is correct because it is the phase at the end of which the team will possess formal requirement specifications that developers can use to build the application.

During Requirements analysis stakeholders work with analysts to transform high level needs into clear functional requirements, non functional requirements, and acceptance criteria. These items are documented in a requirements specification or backlog and they provide the precise testable guidance developers need to design and implement the system and to guide later verification.

System design is incorrect because it follows the requirements phase and focuses on defining architecture, components, interfaces, and data models based on established requirements rather than producing the original formal requirement documents developers need to start building the application.

Requirements discovery and feasibility study is incorrect because that phase is mainly about eliciting high level stakeholder needs and assessing project viability. It gathers initial information and feasibility conclusions but it does not produce the detailed formal specifications that developers require to implement the system.

Verification and testing is incorrect because testing happens after design and implementation and its role is to confirm the system meets the documented requirements. It does not create the initial requirement specifications that guide development.

Focus on whether a phase produces formal and detailed artifacts. Look for mention of requirements specifications or acceptance criteria to identify the requirements analysis phase.

Serve as a visible crime deterrent while recording incidents as evidence is correct. At a neighborhood sorting hub the primary security objective of video surveillance is to deter theft and vandalism by being visible and to capture reliable footage that can be used as evidence after an incident.

Visible cameras reduce opportunistic crime because potential offenders see the system and often choose not to act. Recorded footage also supports investigations and law enforcement responses when it is preserved with proper procedures and chain of custody.

Record footage to support insurance claims is not the primary purpose. Insurance documentation can be a secondary benefit of recordings but the main goal is to prevent and document criminal activity for security and legal reasons.

Provide operational analytics such as foot traffic counts is incorrect as the primary purpose. Modern systems can deliver analytics and those outputs are useful for operations, but operational metrics are generally a secondary use and not the main security rationale for visible cameras at a hub.

Log employee attendance for payroll purposes is wrong as the primary purpose. Time and attendance are normally managed by dedicated systems and using surveillance for payroll raises privacy and accuracy concerns that make it an unlikely primary justification for installing visible security cameras.

When a question asks for the primary security purpose look for answers that emphasize deterrence and evidence collection rather than secondary benefits like analytics or payroll.

Software defined networking is the correct answer.

Software defined networking separates the control plane from the forwarding devices by centralizing decision making in a controller that programs forwarding rules. In this model the controller makes decisions about where traffic is inspected or routed while the network devices act as packet forwarders based on the controller provided policies.

This separation makes the network more programmable and it simplifies deployment of consistent routing and inspection policies across many devices because the controller can update forwarding behavior centrally.

Cloud VPN is incorrect because it describes an encrypted tunnel service for connecting networks and not an architectural model that separates control logic from packet forwarding. It provides secure connectivity rather than centralizing the control plane.

Storage area network is incorrect because a SAN is a specialized network for storage traffic and it does not separate control and data planes for general packet forwarding. SANs focus on storage access and management rather than centralized routing or inspection control.

Virtual LAN is incorrect because a VLAN is a method to segment Layer 2 networks and it does not inherently separate the control plane from the forwarding plane. VLAN configuration is applied on devices and it does not by itself provide a central controller that decides where traffic is inspected or routed.

When you see the terms control plane and forwarding think about architectures that centralize decision making such as SDN. Eliminate options that describe tunneling or simple segmentation because they do not separate control from forwarding.