ISC² CC Cybersecurity Certified Exam Dumps and Braindumps

Which notation expresses an IP address together with its network prefix in a single compact form?

• ❏ A. Hexadecimal Notation

• ❏ B. Subnet Mask Decimal Notation

• ❏ C. CIDR Notation

• ❏ D. Dotted Decimal Notation

A financial technology firm called HarborPay operates customer facing APIs and wants the application to defend itself by detecting and reacting to active attacks while it runs. Which security technique allows an application to protect itself by responding to threats as they happen?

• ❏ A. Software Composition Analysis

• ❏ B. Dynamic Application Security Testing

• ❏ C. Static Application Security Testing

• ❏ D. Runtime Application Self Protection

Which industry standard is most commonly regarded as the “gold standard” for safeguarding information systems and their data?

• ❏ A. NIST SP 800-53

• ❏ B. SOC 2

• ❏ C. FIPS 140-2

• ❏ D. ISO/IEC 27001:2022

A regional cloud operations group runs a complete shutdown exercise of its live environment to validate disaster recovery procedures. What is the primary indicator that the exercise succeeded?

• ❏ A. The outage causes minimal loss of data

• ❏ B. The system can be restored to normal operation after the outage

• ❏ C. The outage continues for the longest observed duration

• ❏ D. The shutdown forces systems to crash

You are designing a protected records system for a startup called Harbor Retail and the database will contain confidential customer profiles and order histories. The security team requires that staff identities be confirmed before they receive access to protected files and services. In security terminology what is the name of the process that verifies a user identity and then allows or denies access to system resources?

• ❏ A. Authentication process

• ❏ B. User accountability

• ❏ C. Access control mechanisms

• ❏ D. Identity verification

Which approach offers the weakest defense against email phishing attempts?

• ❏ A. Implement stringent password complexity and rotation rules

• ❏ B. Deploy endpoint antivirus on all corporate devices

• ❏ C. Require users to simply ignore suspicious emails and avoid clicking links or opening attachments

• ❏ D. Enable two step verification with Google Workspace

Which data protection approach includes obfuscation as one of its techniques?

• ❏ A. Tokenization

• ❏ B. Data deidentification

• ❏ C. Hashing

• ❏ D. Encryption

Riverton Labs expanded and restructured its cloud footprint over the last 14 months and some of those updates led to service disruptions. You need a method to record configuration changes and restore previous states when necessary. What capability must the cloud environment provide?

• ❏ A. Data governance and retention

• ❏ B. Configuration management system

• ❏ C. Operational change control

• ❏ D. Resource lifecycle management

Jordan joined NovaSys and was assigned a unique username and created a password so he could reach particular systems while his actions were recorded and audited. Which sequence of security principles did NovaSys implement?

• ❏ A. Authentication then Identification then Authorization then Accountability

• ❏ B. Identification then Authorization then Authentication then Accountability

• ❏ C. Identification then Authentication then Authorization then Accountability

• ❏ D. Authorization then Authentication then Identification then Accountability

Which of these items is not included among the established Privacy by Design principles?

• ❏ A. Compulsory consent

• ❏ B. Privacy as the default setting

• ❏ C. End to end security

• ❏ D. Proactive instead of reactive

• ❏ E. Supreme priority

A regional library system has issued tap to enter staff ID badges for building access and transactions. Which type of technology do those badges normally use?

• ❏ A. Barcode technology

• ❏ B. Optical character recognition

• ❏ C. Radio frequency identification technology (RFID)

• ❏ D. Magnetic stripe technology

For wearable and nearby gadgets that connect within a person’s immediate area which wireless technology typically delivers the most robust built in security features?

• ❏ A. Bluetooth

• ❏ B. Z-Wave

• ❏ C. Wi-Fi

• ❏ D. Zigbee

A regional credit union is reviewing security evaluation terminology and sees the phrases “protection profile” and “evaluation assurance level (EAL)”. Which international standard defines those concepts?

• ❏ A. ISO/IEC 27001

• ❏ B. CSA STAR

• ❏ C. Common Criteria

• ❏ D. FIPS 140-2

A regional insurer named HarborView maintains a disaster recovery plan that consists of several stages. In which stage are the disaster recovery procedures actually executed and systems failed over when a disaster is declared?

• ❏ A. Planning phase

• ❏ B. Implementation phase

• ❏ C. Activation phase

• ❏ D. Testing phase

Which activity would be considered an official phase in an organization’s data handling policy life cycle?

• ❏ A. Gather data

• ❏ B. Modify dataset

• ❏ C. Secure disposal

• ❏ D. Encrypt using Cloud Key Management Service

A regional consulting firm is preparing an external compliance review for a retail chain called Meridian Retail. Which factor is least important to prioritize when planning the external audit?

• ❏ A. The boundaries and areas included in the audit plan

• ❏ B. The count of auditors assigned to the engagement

• ❏ C. The goals and intended outcomes of the audit

• ❏ D. The credentials and experience of the audit team

A technology team at a regional retailer is hardening their servers by closing unused ports and they plan to block UDP port 137 on their Windows file servers. Which network service will this interfere with?

• ❏ A. HTTPS

• ❏ B. NetBIOS name resolution

• ❏ C. SMTP

• ❏ D. DNS

Which of the following would not be considered a multi factor authentication method when used alongside adaptive or conditional access controls?

• ❏ A. Receiving a one time password in the user email

• ❏ B. Checking the client IP address

• ❏ C. Using a hardware security key

• ❏ D. Verifying a user fingerprint

Which statement about the code of ethics issued by the Global Security Certification Board is not accurate?

• ❏ A. Compliance with the code is required to keep certification

• ❏ B. The code applies to every professional working in information security

• ❏ C. Members who detect a possible breach are obligated to report the issue

• ❏ D. Failure to follow the code can result in revocation of the credential

As the new lead information security officer at Asteria Technologies you plan to implement a security baseline to strengthen the organization security posture and provide consistent guidance for system configuration. What is the primary benefit of establishing such a baseline?

• ❏ A. VPC Service Controls

• ❏ B. It enforces immediate application of all patches

• ❏ C. It defines a minimum security standard that all system modifications are measured against

• ❏ D. It increases network performance by automatically shifting bandwidth

All question come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

When an organization subscribes to a Software as a Service offering what type of access do end users typically receive?

• ❏ A. Access to network functions

• ❏ B. Access to hosted software applications

• ❏ C. Access to managed security services

• ❏ D. Access to physical computing infrastructure

Legacy cryptographic algorithms may become vulnerable as cloud scale and novel compute techniques progress, and a regional cloud firm called Cedar Ridge Analytics is assessing future risks. Which emerging technology could realistically compromise many of the current public key encryption schemes?

• ❏ A. Quantum annealing systems

• ❏ B. Cloud TPU accelerators

• ❏ C. Quantum computing

• ❏ D. Artificial intelligence

How would you define the principle of least privilege when assigning access rights within an IT organization?

• ❏ A. Providing users broad permissions so they can perform any task without delay

• ❏ B. Cloud Identity and Access Management

• ❏ C. Assigning each user only the minimal permissions required to perform their assigned duties

• ❏ D. Giving users the same access level as administrators

Which disaster recovery test runs the secondary processing site while the production facility continues to operate normally?

• ❏ A. Cold site activation

• ❏ B. Tabletop walkthrough

• ❏ C. Parallel run

• ❏ D. Full interruption test

Marisol and her security team at OrchardTech are assessing risks for a planned platform as a service deployment. They remember a zero day flaw in which logging a particular sequence of characters caused remote code execution. Which layer does this type of vulnerability most directly affect?

• ❏ A. Virtualization or hypervisor layer

• ❏ B. Physical hardware and network layer

• ❏ C. Application software layer

• ❏ D. Data storage layer

Which approach should an IT organization adopt to manage software patches while maintaining the reliability of production systems?

• ❏ A. Schedule recurring monthly maintenance windows for patching

• ❏ B. Deploy patches to all hosts immediately upon release

• ❏ C. Assess patches primarily on the vendor’s reputation before applying them

• ❏ D. Validate patches in a staging environment before promoting them to production

Daniel leads network operations at Ridgeway Systems and he plans to deploy a control that permits or blocks traffic by examining IP addresses and port numbers to protect the corporate network. Which security control is he putting in place?

• ❏ A. Virtual Private Network VPN

• ❏ B. Intrusion Detection System IDS

• ❏ C. Firewall

• ❏ D. Google Cloud Armor

Which activity is most closely associated with phishing attacks?

• ❏ A. Deploying biometric locks and other physical access controls

• ❏ B. Architecting network topologies to improve security and traffic segmentation

• ❏ C. Using encryption to protect data while it moves between systems

• ❏ D. Tricking people into revealing passwords and sensitive information via fake emails or cloned websites

Which security principle requires granting staff only the minimal set of permissions needed to perform their assigned tasks?

• ❏ A. Identity and Access Management

• ❏ B. Need to know principle

• ❏ C. Principle of least privilege

• ❏ D. Access control

What kind of security assessment is performed when a fintech startup evaluates live web applications and the testers have little or no internal knowledge of the code or infrastructure?

• ❏ A. Vulnerability scanning

• ❏ B. Penetration testing

• ❏ C. Static application security testing (SAST)

• ❏ D. Dynamic application security testing (DAST)

Which of the following is a binding statute that carries legal force across multiple countries and jurisdictions?

• ❏ A. ISO 27002

• ❏ B. NIST security publications

• ❏ C. EU General Data Protection Regulation GDPR

• ❏ D. ISO 27001

The compliance team at a regional bank is negotiating a cloud contract with a managed services provider and they are asking for an uptime guarantee of 99.995% in the service level agreement. Which operational attribute is this uptime target primarily intended to ensure?

• ❏ A. Resiliency

• ❏ B. Portability

• ❏ C. Service availability

• ❏ D. Performance

Which of these layer names does not belong to the TCP/IP protocol stack?

• ❏ A. Internet layer

• ❏ B. Application layer

• ❏ C. Physical layer

• ❏ D. Transport layer

A cloud security lead at a regional financial services firm is creating the policy framework and supporting documents for managing cloud assets so permissions can be enforced, alerts can be issued, and billing can be tracked. What mechanism lets resources be cataloged and associated with metadata for those purposes?

• ❏ A. Data classification

• ❏ B. Resource tags

• ❏ C. Resource identifier

• ❏ D. Metadata schema

Which of the following is mainly used to identify an account and should not be relied upon as a method of proving identity?

• ❏ A. Service account key

• ❏ B. Retinal scan

• ❏ C. Login name

• ❏ D. Hardware token

CIDR Notation is correct because it expresses an IP address together with its network prefix in a single compact form such as 192.0.2.0/24.

CIDR Notation uses a slash followed by a prefix length to indicate how many leading bits form the network portion. This representation combines the address and the mask into one string which makes it concise and unambiguous for both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

Hexadecimal Notation is incorrect because hexadecimal is merely a base 16 representation of values and it does not by itself combine an IP address with a network prefix in the standard routing or addressing formats.

Subnet Mask Decimal Notation is incorrect because that style shows the subnet mask separately in dotted decimal form such as 255.255.255.0 and it does not present the address and prefix together in a single compact token.

Dotted Decimal Notation is incorrect because dotted decimal refers to the usual IPv4 address format like 192.0.2.1 and it does not include the prefix length so it does not meet the requirement of expressing the address and network prefix in one compact form.

When you see an address with a slash such as /24 pick the option that mentions a prefix length because that indicates CIDR style notation.

The correct option is Runtime Application Self Protection.

Runtime Application Self Protection instruments the application while it runs to monitor inputs and internal behavior so it can detect active attacks as they occur and take immediate action to block or mitigate them. It operates in process and has full context about application state and user sessions so it can perform actions such as blocking malicious requests terminating sessions or capturing detailed forensic data in real time.

Software Composition Analysis focuses on identifying known vulnerable open source components and license issues in the codebase and it does not provide in process detection or active runtime blocking of attacks.

Dynamic Application Security Testing performs external testing against a running application to find vulnerabilities and it acts as an external scanner so it cannot act from inside the application to immediately stop an attack in production.

Static Application Security Testing analyzes source code or binaries offline to find coding flaws during development and it cannot detect or react to live attacks while the application runs.

When a question mentions detecting and reacting to active attacks while it runs or in process visibility prefer the runtime self protection answer rather than SAST DAST or SCA.

ISO/IEC 27001:2022 is the correct option.

ISO/IEC 27001:2022 is an international information security management system standard that specifies requirements for establishing implementing and maintaining a risk based ISMS. It provides a formal certification path and a governance framework that organizations worldwide adopt to protect the confidentiality integrity and availability of information.

NIST SP 800-53 is a comprehensive catalog of security and privacy controls that is widely used by US federal agencies and by other organizations. It is a controls catalog rather than an international management system and it does not provide a global certification pathway which is why it is not considered the gold standard for an organization wide ISMS.

SOC 2 is an attestation report based on the AICPA Trust Services Criteria and it focuses on controls at service organizations. It supports vendor assurance and contractual trust but it is not a management system standard with formal international certification and that is why it is not the gold standard answer.

FIPS 140-2 defines security requirements for cryptographic modules rather than for an organization wide information security management system. It has also been superseded by FIPS 140-3 which makes FIPS 140-2 a less likely expected answer on newer exams.

Look for clues such as international and formal certification when the question asks for the gold standard for safeguarding information systems.

The correct option is The system can be restored to normal operation after the outage.

A shutdown exercise is judged successful when it proves that recovery procedures actually return the environment to service. Demonstrating that The system can be restored to normal operation after the outage shows that backups, failover, configuration and dependency mapping worked and that recovery time objectives and service continuity can be met.

The outage causes minimal loss of data is not the primary indicator because low data loss relates to recovery point objectives and backup frequency. Minimal data loss can be important but it does not by itself show the system was fully recovered and operational.

The outage continues for the longest observed duration is wrong because a longer outage indicates failure not success. Duration is a measurement of impact and it should be minimized rather than maximized in a successful exercise.

The shutdown forces systems to crash is incorrect because forcing crashes can test robustness but causing crashes does not prove that controlled recovery and restoration procedures work. A successful exercise restores services cleanly rather than simply causing failures.

When you see disaster recovery questions choose the option that emphasizes restoring normal operations and meeting recovery objectives. Focus on the outcome that proves services are recoverable.

The correct answer is Access control mechanisms.

Access control mechanisms is the umbrella term for the set of processes that first verify a user identity and then decide whether to allow or deny access to protected files and services. It includes authentication methods that confirm who a user is and authorization policies that enforce permissions and access rules.

Authentication process refers specifically to proving a user identity and does not by itself include the authorization step that grants or denies access to resources.

Identity verification is essentially another way of describing authentication and so it does not cover the policy evaluation and enforcement parts of access control.

User accountability relates to logging, auditing, and tracking actions so users can be held responsible for their behavior and it is not the term for the mechanism that permits or blocks resource access.

When a question describes confirming who someone is and then allowing or denying access remember that access control is the umbrella concept that includes both authentication and authorization.

The correct answer is Require users to simply ignore suspicious emails and avoid clicking links or opening attachments.

Relying solely on user behavior is the weakest defense because humans make mistakes and social engineers craft messages to bypass suspicion. Training and awareness are valuable, but they cannot guarantee that every user will recognize a sophisticated phishing message or that an attacker will not exploit unusual context to trick a user. Technical and automated controls are needed so a single human error does not lead to full compromise.

Implement stringent password complexity and rotation rules is not the weakest choice because password policies reduce credential guessing and provide a technical control. Modern guidance does caution against frequent forced rotations as they can reduce security, but password controls still add value when combined with other defenses.

Deploy endpoint antivirus on all corporate devices is not the weakest choice because endpoint protection can detect and block known malicious attachments and malware delivered by phishing. It is not perfect against credential harvesting via web based phishing, but it is a concrete technical mitigation that reduces risk compared with relying only on users.

Enable two step verification with Google Workspace is not the weakest choice because two step verification adds a second factor that makes account takeover much harder even if credentials are phished. Multi factor authentication is one of the stronger controls listed and it compensates for human error.

When you see an option that relies only on user behavior versus options that describe technical or multi layered controls, prefer the user behavior choice as the weakest single control.

Data deidentification is correct. Data deidentification is an overarching approach that reduces or removes personal identifiers and it commonly uses obfuscation as one of its techniques along with masking, pseudonymization, generalization, and suppression.

Data deidentification includes obfuscation because obfuscation covers methods that make data less identifiable or less useful for reidentification. Obfuscation can mean masking characters, perturbing values, or replacing identifiable elements so that the data set no longer readily reveals the individual while still supporting analytics in some cases.

Tokenization is incorrect because it is a single technique that replaces a sensitive value with a surrogate token. It can be used as part of a deidentification strategy but it is not the broader approach that encompasses multiple techniques.

Hashing is incorrect because it is a specific one way transformation used to obscure values. Hashing may appear in deidentification workflows but it is a method rather than an overall data protection approach.

Encryption is incorrect because it protects confidentiality by making data unreadable without keys and it is reversible with those keys. Encryption is focused on protecting data in transit and at rest rather than removing identifiers in the way deidentification and obfuscation do.

When a question asks for an approach look for an umbrella term that includes multiple methods. Techniques like tokenization or hashing are specific tools and not the broader approach.

Configuration management system is the correct option.

A Configuration management system provides versioned and declarative definitions of the desired state and records a change history so teams can detect configuration drift and restore systems to previous known good states. It automates configuration enforcement across many resources and makes rollbacks or redeployments predictable and repeatable when a recent change causes a disruption.

Practical implementations include infrastructure as code tools and configuration management software that record state, track changes, and support rollback operations so you can revert to a working configuration after a misconfiguration or failed update.

Data governance and retention is incorrect because it focuses on policies for storing and retaining data and meeting compliance requirements rather than tracking and reverting system configuration states.

Operational change control is incorrect because it refers to the process and approvals around making changes and not the technical capability to record configurations and automatically restore previous states.

Resource lifecycle management is incorrect because it covers provisioning and decommissioning of resources and their overall lifecycle rather than maintaining versioned configuration state and providing rollback mechanisms.

When a question asks about recording configuration changes and restoring prior states look for answers that mention versioning, desired state management, or rollback and not those that only describe policies or approval processes.

The correct option is Identification then Authentication then Authorization then Accountability.

This sequence is correct because the system first receives the claimed identity and then verifies credentials to confirm the claim. After authentication the system enforces permissions with authorization. Finally the system records actions and retains logs to provide accountability and support audits.

Authentication then Identification then Authorization then Accountability is incorrect because you cannot verify credentials before an identity is presented. Authentication validates a claimed identity so the claim must come first.

Identification then Authorization then Authentication then Accountability is incorrect because it attempts to grant or check permissions before the identity has been verified. Authorization should occur only after authentication to avoid granting access to an unverified actor.

Authorization then Authentication then Identification then Accountability is incorrect because it reverses the required order and tries to grant permissions before establishing and verifying who is acting. Permissions depend on a known and authenticated identity.

When tackling AAA style questions look for the logical flow of identity then proof then rights then logging. Pay attention to the difference between identification and authentication when you read the options.

The correct answer is Supreme priority. That phrase is not one of the established Privacy by Design principles so it is the option that does not belong.

The Privacy by Design framework defines seven foundational principles that guide how privacy is built into systems and processes. Those principles include Proactive instead of reactive, Privacy as the default setting, privacy embedded into design, full functionality or positive sum, End to end security, visibility and transparency, and respect for user privacy which covers user control and consent.

Compulsory consent is incorrect because the framework emphasizes respect for user privacy and meaningful user control including informed consent and choice. The exam option is phrased to reflect that emphasis so it is treated as one of the concepts represented in the principles.

Privacy as the default setting is incorrect because that is explicitly one of the seven Privacy by Design principles. It means privacy protections are built in by default without action by the individual.

End to end security is incorrect because lifecycle protection of data from collection through deletion is a core PbD principle. The principle requires robust security measures to protect privacy throughout the data flow.

Proactive instead of reactive is incorrect because PbD requires anticipating and preventing privacy invasive events rather than reacting after they occur. That proactive stance is foundational to the framework.

When answering, mentally recite the seven Privacy by Design principles and look for the phrase that does not match any of them. Pay attention to wording that sounds absolute or promotional such as Supreme priority because it often signals the wrong choice.

All ICS2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

The correct option is Radio frequency identification technology (RFID).

Radio frequency identification technology (RFID) enables contactless tap interactions because the badge contains a small chip and antenna that communicate with a reader using radio waves. This allows the reader to identify the card at short range without direct line of sight and it supports secure identifiers and access control functions that make it the appropriate technology for staff ID badges used for building entry and transactions.

Barcode technology is incorrect because barcodes require an optical scanner and direct line of sight and they are not used for tap style badge reads.

Optical character recognition is incorrect because OCR is a method for extracting printed characters from images and it is not a contactless badge communication technology.

Magnetic stripe technology is incorrect because magnetic stripes require physical swiping or close contact and they are more prone to wear and skimming. They are not the typical method for tap or contactless access in modern badge systems.

When a question mentions tap or contactless access think of RFID or NFC and eliminate options that require scanning, swiping, or printed text.

Wi-Fi is the correct option.

Wi-Fi standards such as WPA3 and support for 802.1X and EAP based authentication provide strong encryption and certificate based device authentication which make it well suited for robust built in security for nearby wearables and gadgets. Wi-Fi also supports protected management frames and common enterprise controls that enable centralized provisioning, network segmentation, and monitoring which further strengthen security in managed environments. These built in mechanisms and widely adopted enterprise practices are why Wi-Fi typically delivers the most robust built in security for devices in a person�s immediate area.

Bluetooth is designed for short range connections and it includes features such as Secure Simple Pairing and LE Secure Connections but implementations and pairing workflows can vary across devices and that variability creates potential vulnerabilities. Bluetooth does not consistently provide the mandatory enterprise grade authentication and centralized controls that modern Wi-Fi deployments offer which is why it is not the best answer here.

Z-Wave is a low power mesh protocol used mostly in home automation and it can implement security classes such as S2 but real world deployments often depend on vendor firmware and consumer device practices. Z-Wave lacks the broad enterprise integration and mandatory modern authentication found in Wi-Fi.

Zigbee is another low power mesh protocol that has improved security over time but it historically had inconsistent key management and optional features which make some deployments less secure by default. Zigbee is optimized for low power operation rather than enterprise class authentication and centralized management which is why Wi-Fi is the more robust choice in many environments.

When a question asks about strongest built in security for nearby devices think about mandatory enterprise features such as WPA3 and 802.1X rather than just short range or low power characteristics.

The correct answer is Common Criteria because it is the international standard that defines the terms protection profile and evaluation assurance level.

The Common Criteria is published as ISO/IEC 15408 and it defines a protection profile as a reusable, implementation independent set of security requirements for a class of products. The Common Criteria also defines evaluation assurance levels or EAL as a scale from EAL1 through EAL7 that describes the depth and rigor of an assurance evaluation.

ISO/IEC 27001 is an information security management system standard and it focuses on organizational policies, risk management, and controls rather than formal product evaluation criteria like protection profiles and EALs.

CSA STAR is a cloud security assurance program and registry that promotes transparency and assessment of cloud providers and it does not define EALs or protection profiles as part of an international product evaluation standard.

FIPS 140-2 is a U.S. standard for cryptographic module validation and it defines security levels for crypto modules instead of protection profiles or EALs. It has been superseded by FIPS 140-3 and is considered legacy for newer evaluations.

When you see terms like protection profile or EAL on the exam think of the ISO/IEC 15408 framework and the Common Criteria rather than management or cloud assurance standards.

The correct option is Activation phase.

The Activation phase is the stage in which the disaster recovery procedures are actually put into motion. In this phase the organization declares the disaster, executes the recovery playbooks, performs failover to alternate sites or systems, and coordinates the teams responsible for restoring operations.

Planning phase is incorrect because that stage involves developing the disaster recovery plan and identifying resources and roles rather than executing recovery actions.

Implementation phase is incorrect because that stage refers to deploying controls and infrastructure or putting the plan elements in place rather than activating the plan in response to an actual incident.

Testing phase is incorrect because that stage is used to validate and rehearse the plan through exercises and drills rather than to perform the real failover and production recovery when a disaster is declared.

Focus on action words such as executed and failed over in the question. Those words usually point to the active response or activation stage rather than planning, building, or testing stages.

The correct option is Secure disposal.

Secure disposal is an official phase in a data handling policy life cycle because it defines how data is permanently removed or rendered unrecoverable when it is no longer required. This phase ensures that retention requirements are enforced and that sensitive information cannot be recovered after the organization no longer needs it.

Gather data describes a collection activity but it is an operational task and not the specific policy phase that this question identifies. Policies may refer to collection or acquisition more formally but the option as written is not the accepted life cycle phase here.

Modify dataset is a processing or maintenance action that happens during use or update activities. It is not generally listed as a standalone life cycle phase in data handling policies.

Encrypt using Cloud Key Management Service names a specific technical control and a vendor service. Encryption is an important protection mechanism that can be used during storage or transmission but it is not itself a life cycle phase.

Focus on terms that name stages such as creation storage use retention and disposal and not on specific tools or actions. Learn common lifecycle terminology so you can distinguish a phase from a control.

The correct answer is The count of auditors assigned to the engagement.

The count of auditors assigned to the engagement is least important to prioritize because it is primarily an operational detail that can be adjusted to fit the scope and schedule. Planning should first establish what will be audited and why, and then staffing can be scaled or scheduled to meet those needs.

The boundaries and areas included in the audit plan are important because they define the scope and determine which systems and processes must be evaluated and which regulations apply. Clear boundaries prevent gaps and overlap and ensure the audit provides useful coverage.

The goals and intended outcomes of the audit are important because they drive the audit objectives, criteria, and the evidence that must be collected. Knowing the intended outcomes guides methodology and reporting and ensures the engagement meets stakeholder expectations.

The credentials and experience of the audit team are important because auditor competence and appropriate subject matter expertise affect the quality of findings and the credibility of conclusions. Experienced auditors are also more likely to identify relevant risks and interpret results correctly.

When you see an option about counts or staffing numbers think about whether the item affects audit quality or just logistics. Prioritize scope, objectives, and team competence over staffing counts when choosing the best answer.

NetBIOS name resolution is correct because UDP port 137 is assigned to the NetBIOS Name Service that Windows file servers use for name registration and name queries.

UDP port 137 carries the NetBIOS Name Service traffic which lets Windows hosts map NetBIOS names to IP addresses on local networks. Blocking UDP 137 will therefore interfere with NetBIOS name resolution and can break legacy Windows name lookups, browsing lists, and some older file sharing workflows that rely on NetBIOS.

NetBIOS name resolution is considered a legacy feature and modern Active Directory environments and newer Windows configurations typically prefer DNS and direct SMB over TCP port 445. This makes NetBIOS less common on hardened networks and newer exam items may emphasize DNS and SMB over NetBIOS.

HTTPS is incorrect because HTTPS runs over TCP port 443 with TLS and is unrelated to UDP port 137.

SMTP is incorrect because SMTP is an email transfer protocol that uses TCP ports such as 25, 587, or 465 and it does not use UDP 137.

DNS is incorrect because DNS primarily uses UDP port 53 for standard queries and TCP port 53 for zone transfers and larger responses. DNS name resolution is separate from the NetBIOS name service on UDP 137.

Memorize a few common port mappings such as UDP 137 for NetBIOS name service and TCP 443 for HTTPS. When a question gives a port number think of the service that normally uses that port and eliminate options that use different ports.

The correct answer is Checking the client IP address.

Checking the client IP address is a contextual or environmental signal that indicates where a request originated and it does not represent a separate authentication factor. Multi factor authentication requires combining factors from at least two categories such as something you know, something you have, or something you are and a client IP does not fit those categories.

Receiving a one time password in the user email is incorrect because a one time password delivered to an email account requires access to that account and therefore serves as an additional authentication factor in practice. It is commonly treated as a possession or out of band factor when combined with a primary credential.

Using a hardware security key is incorrect because a hardware key is a possession factor and is designed to provide strong multi factor authentication when paired with another factor.

Verifying a user fingerprint is incorrect because a fingerprint is a biometric factor and therefore qualifies as a separate factor when used alongside another authentication method.

Focus on whether the control actually proves identity or only provides context. Remember that factors are something you know, have, or are while signals like IP address are contextual and not authentication factors.

The correct answer is The code applies to every professional working in information security.

That statement is not accurate because a certification board typically governs the conduct of its own certificants and of members who agree to the code rather than every person employed in the information security field. The Global Security Certification Board would apply its code to those who hold or seek its credentials and to people who fall under its jurisdiction and enforcement procedures.

Compliance with the code is required to keep certification is not the correct choice because many certification bodies do require certificants to follow the code as a condition of maintaining their credential. That means compliance is commonly required and so the statement is accurate.

Members who detect a possible breach are obligated to report the issue is not the correct choice because codes of ethics often include duties to report known or suspected violations so the board can investigate and protect the integrity of its certifications. Reporting obligations are therefore commonly part of ethical rules.

Failure to follow the code can result in revocation of the credential is not the correct choice because disciplinary measures for serious or repeated violations frequently include suspension or revocation of certification. That makes this statement an accurate description of typical enforcement outcomes.

When a question asks which statement is not accurate read each statement as if it were a policy requirement and check whether it applies to the board or to the broader profession. Pay attention to scope and jurisdiction of the code.

The correct option is It defines a minimum security standard that all system modifications are measured against.

This is correct because a security baseline establishes a defined set of minimum configuration settings and controls that all systems must meet. A baseline provides a consistent reference for measuring changes and detecting configuration drift. It helps enforce uniform security posture across systems and simplifies auditing and compliance efforts.

VPC Service Controls is incorrect because it names a cloud provider feature that focuses on isolating services and data at a network perimeter rather than defining an organization wide configuration baseline. It is a specific control and not the general standard that a baseline provides.

It enforces immediate application of all patches is incorrect because baselines specify desired configuration states and may include patch level requirements but they do not themselves perform or force immediate patch deployment. Patch management is a separate operational process that uses baselines as criteria.

It increases network performance by automatically shifting bandwidth is incorrect because baselines are concerned with security configuration and compliance. They do not dynamically manage network bandwidth or improve performance by shifting resources.

When a question mentions a security baseline think about the minimum acceptable configuration and compliance rather than dynamic services or automatic performance features.

All ICS2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

The correct answer is Access to hosted software applications.

A Software as a Service offering delivers complete application software that runs on the provider’s infrastructure and is accessed by end users over the network. In this model the user receives hosted software applications and the provider handles the platform, runtime, updates and maintenance so the customer does not manage the underlying stack.

Access to network functions is incorrect because network functionality is usually provided by network services or specific networking vendors and not as the primary capability of a standard SaaS subscription.

Access to managed security services is incorrect because managed security services are specialized offerings that provide monitoring and protection and they are distinct from SaaS. A SaaS application may include security controls but that does not make it a managed security service.

Access to physical computing infrastructure is incorrect because that describes Infrastructure as a Service where customers obtain compute resources to manage. In SaaS the provider owns and operates the physical servers and the customer simply uses the application.

When you see a question about SaaS focus on who manages the application versus the infrastructure and remember that SaaS delivers ready to use applications while IaaS provides infrastructure for the customer to manage.

Quantum computing is the correct option because it can run algorithms that directly undermine the hard mathematical problems on which most public key schemes rely.

Quantum computing is capable in principle of running Shor’s algorithm which can factor large integers and compute discrete logarithms in polynomial time and that would break RSA and elliptic curve cryptography. The development of large scale fault tolerant quantum machines would therefore represent a realistic and systemic risk to current public key encryption.

Quantum computing also uses algorithms such as Grover’s which reduce the effective strength of symmetric keys by roughly a square root and that means longer keys or post quantum primitives are needed for long term confidentiality.

Quantum annealing systems are specialized devices aimed at certain optimization problems and they are not equivalent to universal quantum computers. They are not known to efficiently implement Shor’s algorithm and so they are not considered the same broad threat to RSA or ECC.

Cloud TPU accelerators are classical hardware built to speed up machine learning workloads. They cannot run quantum algorithms and they do not change the fundamental hardness of factoring or discrete logarithm problems.

Artificial intelligence can improve heuristics or help find implementation flaws but it cannot solve integer factorization or discrete logarithm problems in polynomial time. It therefore does not itself pose the same existential threat to public key cryptography as scalable quantum algorithms.

When a question asks which emerging technology could break public key cryptography think about whether it can run universal quantum algorithms such as Shor’s algorithm rather than whether it is an accelerator for classical or ML tasks.

The correct answer is Assigning each user only the minimal permissions required to perform their assigned duties.

This principle means each account gets only the access needed to do assigned work and nothing extra. Limiting permissions in this way reduces the attack surface and limits what an attacker or compromised account can do.

Practical implementations include mapping roles to job duties using role based access control granting time bound or just in time elevation and performing regular entitlement reviews to remove unnecessary rights.

The option Providing users broad permissions so they can perform any task without delay is incorrect because broad permissions increase risk and enable privilege abuse and lateral movement instead of restricting access.

The option Cloud Identity and Access Management is incorrect because it names a category of tools that can enforce least privilege but it is not the definition of the principle. Tools support enforcement but they do not describe what least privilege is.

The option Giving users the same access level as administrators is incorrect because granting administrator level access to all users removes critical controls. Administrator rights must be restricted and granted only when strictly required.

When you encounter questions about access choose answers that emphasize minimal and need to know access and look for mentions of time bound or just in time elevation.

The correct answer is Parallel run.

A Parallel run test executes the same processing at the secondary site while the production facility continues to operate normally. This approach lets teams compare outputs and verify that the recovery site produces accurate results without interrupting live operations.

Cold site activation is incorrect because a cold site is a standby location that lacks active systems and current data and must be provisioned and loaded before it can process transactions. It does not run concurrently with production.

Tabletop walkthrough is incorrect because it is a discussion based exercise where participants review plans and responsibilities rather than execute systems or process real workloads. No parallel processing occurs in a walkthrough.

Full interruption test is incorrect because it involves stopping production and failing over to the alternate site. That scenario does not keep the production facility operating normally while the secondary site runs.

When the question mentions while production continues or run concurrently look for the Parallel run option as the correct choice.

The correct option is Application software layer.

A zero day that executes code when a particular sequence of characters is logged indicates a flaw in how the application or its libraries parse and handle input. That parsing and logging logic runs inside the Application software layer so the vulnerability is an application level issue.

Logging frameworks and string handling are implemented by application code and by the libraries the application uses. If malformed input can cause remote code execution during logging the root cause is in the Application software layer rather than in lower infrastructure layers.

Virtualization or hypervisor layer is incorrect because hypervisor flaws would affect guest isolation or host control and would not normally be triggered by a specific logging sequence processed inside an application.

Physical hardware and network layer is incorrect because that layer covers servers and network devices and not the parsing of log messages that occurs in software.

Data storage layer is incorrect because persistent storage might hold malicious data but the described exploit occurs when the data is parsed for logging. The underlying problem is how the application processes input rather than how storage is implemented.

When an exploit is triggered by processing input focus on the application and its libraries and look for input handling or logging bugs rather than blaming lower infrastructure layers.

The correct answer is Validate patches in a staging environment before promoting them to production.

This approach lets you test patches against representative systems and workloads before they reach production. Using a staging environment helps detect regressions, compatibility issues, and performance regressions while preserving production reliability. It also supports running automated and manual acceptance tests and enables phased rollouts and safe rollback plans when problems occur.

Schedule recurring monthly maintenance windows for patching is not sufficient by itself because a fixed monthly cadence can leave critical vulnerabilities unaddressed between windows and it does not ensure patches are compatibility tested. Maintenance windows can be useful but they must be combined with testing and emergency patch procedures.

Deploy patches to all hosts immediately upon release is risky because immediate, universal deployment can cause outages or data loss when a patch interacts badly with local configurations or custom applications. Production stability requires validation and staged deployment rather than blanket immediate installs.

Assess patches primarily on the vendor’s reputation before applying them is inadequate because vendor reputation does not reveal how a patch will behave in your environment or whether it introduces regressions. Patch decisions should be based on vulnerability severity, exploitability, and test results rather than reputation alone.

On exams prefer answers that balance security and reliability. Emphasize testing in staging and phased rollouts over immediate wide deployments when judging patch management strategies.

The correct answer is Firewall.

A Firewall is the security control that examines packet headers such as IP addresses and transport layer information such as port numbers to permit or block traffic. Firewalls perform packet filtering and can operate as stateless filters or as stateful devices that track connection state to make more informed allow or deny decisions.

Because the question specifically describes permitting or blocking traffic based on IP addresses and port numbers the behavior matches a network Firewall rather than a tunneling or detection product. Firewalls are deployed at network boundaries and on hosts to enforce access control lists and port policies for incoming and outgoing traffic.

Virtual Private Network VPN is incorrect because a VPN creates an encrypted tunnel to protect confidentiality and integrity between endpoints and it does not primarily serve to filter traffic by IP and port for access control. VPNs can carry traffic through a secured channel but they are not the control described in the question.

Intrusion Detection System IDS is incorrect because an IDS monitors and analyzes network or host activity to detect suspicious or malicious actions and it typically generates alerts rather than directly permitting or blocking traffic. An intrusion prevention system would take active blocking actions but the question named IDS and not IPS.

Google Cloud Armor is incorrect in this context because it is a cloud provider specific service focused on protecting HTTP and HTTPS applications from web attacks and DDoS. It operates primarily at the application layer and is not the general network level IP and port filtering control described in the question.

Look for keywords such as IP addresses and port numbers to identify a firewall. If the question mentions encrypted tunnels or alerting rather than blocking by ports then consider VPN or IDS instead.

The correct answer is Tricking people into revealing passwords and sensitive information via fake emails or cloned websites.

This choice describes phishing because attackers impersonate trusted senders and create fraudulent websites or messages to harvest credentials and other sensitive data. Phishing relies on deception and user interaction so it succeeds by convincing people to take an action that reveals secrets or installs malware.

Deploying biometric locks and other physical access controls is incorrect because it describes physical security measures to prevent unauthorized entry and not deceptive communications or credential harvesting.

Architecting network topologies to improve security and traffic segmentation is incorrect because it refers to network design and segmentation to limit exposure and lateral movement rather than tricking users into divulging information.

Using encryption to protect data while it moves between systems is incorrect because encryption protects data in transit to ensure confidentiality and integrity and it does not involve impersonation or social engineering to obtain credentials.

When a question contrasts deceptive communications with technical controls focus on people and social engineering. If an option describes fake emails, cloned sites, or requests for credentials it is most likely describing phishing.

The correct answer is Principle of least privilege.

Principle of least privilege means granting users and processes only the minimum permissions they need to perform their assigned tasks. This reduces the attack surface and limits the potential impact of compromised accounts and accidental misuse.

Principle of least privilege is applied by using role based permissions, just in time elevation where available, and regular review and removal of unnecessary rights. These practices help ensure that no account has more authority than required for its duties.

Identity and Access Management is a broader discipline that covers how identities are created, managed, authenticated, and authorized. It includes the concept of least privilege but it does not itself name the specific permission minimization principle.

Need to know principle focuses on restricting access to specific information based on necessity rather than on assigned tasks or system privileges. It is related but it is more about information visibility than general permission scopes for accounts and processes.

Access control refers to the mechanisms and policies used to enforce who can do what within systems. It is the umbrella under which least privilege operates and it is not the specific rule that requires granting only minimal permissions.

When a question asks about limiting permissions for tasks look for wording such as least privilege or minimum necessary because those phrases point directly to the correct principle.

The correct answer is Dynamic application security testing (DAST).

Dynamic application security testing (DAST) examines a running web application by interacting with it at runtime and it does not require access to source code or internal architecture. This makes it the appropriate choice when testers evaluate live web apps and have little or no internal knowledge of the code or infrastructure.

Vulnerability scanning typically performs automated checks against known vulnerabilities and missing patches on systems and services and it is not focused on the interactive, runtime testing of a web application in the same way as DAST.

Penetration testing can be performed with little internal knowledge when done as a black box assessment and it often includes exploitation and business logic testing, but it is a broader manual engagement rather than the specific automated dynamic analysis implied by DAST.

Static application security testing (SAST) analyzes source code or compiled binaries without running the application and it requires access to the code or build artifacts, so it does not fit a scenario where testers have little or no internal information.

When a question says testers interact with a live application and do not have source code access think dynamic testing. Remember that DAST targets running apps while SAST requires code access.

EU General Data Protection Regulation GDPR is the correct option.

The EU General Data Protection Regulation GDPR is a regulation enacted by the European Union and it is directly binding on all EU member states without needing national laws to implement it.

The EU General Data Protection Regulation GDPR creates enforceable legal obligations for organizations that process personal data of individuals in the EU and it empowers national supervisory authorities to investigate and to impose fines and other penalties for non compliance.

The EU General Data Protection Regulation GDPR also has extraterritorial effect when processing activities monitor individuals in the EU or when goods or services are offered to people in the EU and this gives it legal reach beyond EU borders in many practical cases.

ISO 27002 is an international standard that gives guidance on information security controls and best practices and it is not a statute so it does not by itself create legal obligations unless a regulator or a contract explicitly adopts it.

NIST security publications are authoritative guidance and frameworks produced by a national agency and they help organizations improve security. They do not constitute binding law across multiple countries unless a jurisdiction or contract explicitly requires them.

ISO 27001 is a certifiable management system standard that organizations can be audited against to demonstrate compliance with information security requirements and it is not a binding legal statute unless it has been incorporated into law or contractual obligations.

Look for the words regulation or law when the question asks about binding legal force across jurisdictions and do not confuse standards and guidance with statutes.

The correct answer is Service availability.

An uptime guarantee such as 99.995% is a commitment to how often users can access the managed service and it is therefore a direct measure of Service availability. The SLA percentage defines allowable downtime and the provider obligations if the service is unavailable.

For context 99.995 percent availability equals roughly 26 minutes of downtime per year and about 2.2 minutes per month which shows how strict that SLA is.

Resiliency is about recovering from failures and maintaining operation through redundancy and failover. An uptime percentage does not fully describe recovery behaviours or architectural resilience even though resilient design helps achieve availability.

Portability concerns how easily software and data can be moved between environments or providers. A numerical uptime target does not measure migration ease or compatibility which are the main portability concerns.

Performance refers to responsiveness metrics like latency and throughput and to how fast transactions complete. While poor performance can affect perceived availability the uptime SLA is not a direct measure of performance.

When you see an SLA percentage think about availability and convert the percent into expected downtime per year or per month to judge how strict the guarantee is.

The correct option is Physical layer because it does not belong to the TCP/IP protocol stack.

The TCP/IP model is typically described with four layers called Link, Internet layer, Transport layer, and Application layer. Those four are the layers used in TCP/IP and the name Physical does not appear as a separate TCP/IP layer.

Physical layer is part of the OSI seven layer model and it deals with electrical signals and physical media. Those physical functions are usually considered part of the TCP/IP Link or network interface layer rather than a separate layer in TCP/IP.

Internet layer is incorrect because the Internet layer is a core TCP/IP layer that handles logical addressing and routing with protocols such as IP.

Transport layer is incorrect because the Transport layer is part of TCP/IP and it provides end to end communication services with protocols like TCP and UDP.

Application layer is incorrect because the Application layer is part of TCP/IP and it encompasses high level protocols such as HTTP, SMTP, and DNS that provide services to user applications.

When an item asks which layer does not belong compare the name to the four TCP/IP layers and remember that the OSI Physical functions are absorbed into the TCP/IP Link layer.

All ICS2 questions come from the certificationexams.pro practice exams website and my ISC2-CC Udemy Course.

The correct option is Resource tags.

Resource tags are key value labels that you attach to cloud resources so permissions can be scoped, alerts can be filtered, cost can be allocated, and inventories can be maintained. Cloud providers expose tagging or labeling APIs and consoles so these values can be used by identity and access management, monitoring and billing systems.

Data classification describes the sensitivity or required handling of data and it is not the mechanism used to attach operational metadata to each cloud resource for billing or automated alerts.

Resource identifier refers to unique IDs such as ARNs or numeric IDs and those identify a resource but they do not carry customer defined metadata for grouping, billing, or automated policy enforcement.

Metadata schema defines the structure of metadata but it is not the cloud native operational feature for applying key value pairs directly to individual resources. In practice you use Resource tags or labels as the implemented mechanism.

When the question asks about attaching key value pairs to resources for billing, access, or alerting think tags or labels rather than identifiers or broad data classifications.

The correct option is Login name.

A login name is primarily an identifier for an account and it does not constitute proof of who is operating that account. Usernames are often visible, predictable, or reused and they point to an account record rather than providing evidence of possession, knowledge, or inherence.

Proving identity requires authenticators such as secrets, tokens, or biometrics because those provide evidence that a claimant controls or is associated with the account. A login name alone should not be relied upon to prove identity.

Service account key is a credential used by applications or services to authenticate and authorize actions, so it functions as an authenticator rather than merely an identifier.

Retinal scan is a biometric method that verifies identity based on inherence and it is used to prove who someone is rather than to identify an account.

Hardware token is a possession based authenticator that provides proof of control and is used in multi factor authentication to demonstrate identity rather than to serve as an account identifier.

When a question contrasts a username with items like tokens keys or biometrics remember that a username is an identifier and not an authenticator. Pick the option that represents something you know have or are when asked how to prove identity.